lundi 26 février 2024

Have Fundies Changed Sides, or is Something Else Going On?


Assorted retorts from yahoo boards and elsewhere: Trent Horn Pretended to Oppose "Satan's Guide to the Bible" · Creation vs. Evolution: Have Fundies Changed Sides, or is Something Else Going On?

Trent Horn on his video* presented statistics basically saying:

1984 2004 2014 2022
37 34 28 20 Actual and literal word of God
46 48 47 49 Inspired, not literal
12 15 21 29 Fables
95 97 96 98


So, he made it a question about "Fundamentalists have changed sides."

Now, what exactly has he missed?

Two things:

  • the ones alive 1984 and the ones alive in 2022 overlap (I was alive in both years), but are not identic;
  • most people have been exposed to public school, which has become more Marxist in the USA.


Yes, he has a point that the idea "you don't need to take the Bible literally to take it as God's word" has a power to resist Marxists who consider it as not literally true. The idea "the Bible is the literal word of God" does not resist as well, unless supported by evidence, which is not provided everyone. But there is a reason it is not provided everyone, the Marxist schools cry out about "fake science", plus Church authorities tending in many denominations to side with "inspired, not literal" ... sth which the Marxists running the schools have not been really attacking.

Now, how about taking this in another way. It has not been Fundamentalists changing sides. It has been sons of Fundies raised as Infidels by Schools. And instead of vaunting "inspired but not literal" as miraculously resistant to Marxism, one could take the non-decline of it as a sign Marxists had protected it. And the prevalence of "fables" compared to earlier as a failure to sell this idea to Fundies. Or rather to their sons and daughters, pushed into schools with non-Christians, at an age at which they were undecided.

If so, it might even happen the guys who took "inspired, not literal" were helping the Marxists to push away Fundies from Actual and literal word of God to Fables — because "inspired but not literal" is too mushy for them.

It's illusory to imagine the 50 % or so Fundie material are going sufficiently mushy to accept "inspired but not literal" ... on the other hand, before 19th C. Liberalism and then Marxism took hold of schools, and by the way increased the compulsion to attend them, I would say all of that 50 % had a pretty good chance of believing the Bible to be the actual and (usually) literal word of God. And the mushy half really didn't have too much of a problem living under that régime.

Meanwhile, it is annoying that Trent Horn totally misses the enforced attendance at "Biblical scholarship" in at least some High School classes, even for those who didn't continue to College.

24:56 — 25:05
...so what seems to be happening is that Christians would have very rigid Fundamentalist view of Scripture that couldn't withstand the facts of Biblical Scholarship ended up just abandoning the Faith altogether


In Sweden, such facts are even more striking. The reason is simple. Home schooling is basically totally outlawed, and Private schools that are religious have had a tough time**. Parents who are "too Christian" risk losing custody. The public school system has long been infiltrated by Stasi, by Swedish teachers studying in East Germany, under de facto control of not just East German academia, but actually Stasi. Meanwhile, the Novus Ordo Catholics are partly doing a similar thing.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Paris
St. Galmier of Lyons
27.II.2024

* https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5Se2yEZigXA
** Exceptions were early on granted to 7DA and to Steinerians. This has been somewhat released since joining the EU.

1909 vs § 390


"Adam was not an individual, the fall was collective" - Evil or Just Wrong? · What About "The Jimmy Akin Solution?" · 1909 vs § 390

Should Genesis 3 be taken metaphorically rather than literally? Let's first hear the magisterium from 1909.*

V. Utrum omnia et singula, verba videlicet et phrases, quae in praedictis capitibus occurrunt, semper et necessario accipienda sint sensu proprio, ita ut ab eo discedere numquam liceat, etiam cum locutiones ipsae manifesto appareant improprie, seu metaphorice vel anthropomorphice, usurpatae, et sensum proprium vel ratio tenere prohibeat vel necessitas cogat dimittere?
Resp. Negative.


This translates:

V. Whether all and each, both words and phrases, that occur in the aforementioned chapters, always and necessarily should be accepted in the proper sense, so that it would never be licit to step away from them, even when the same expressions overtly appear used improperly, or metaphorically or anthropomorphically, and either reason forbids to hold or necessity forces to abandon the proper sense?
Resp. Negative.


Now, the judge signing this was not expressing, and was not here free to express what he considered as occasions when reason or necessity forbid to hold the literal sense. Further down (VIII) he says it's licit to take "day" as referring to "quodam temporis spatio," / a certain space of time. As Fulcran Vigouroux was a day ager, we can safely assume he considered six literal days as one no no in the proper sense of words.

However, he was not free to express that opinion as his judgement. He was stuck with "yes" or "no" and sometimes subdividing a question, to the questions he got. His answer certainly does not oblige us to consider the six days as non-literal, since in V he's not speaking of what occasions to use a liberty to use metaphors as exegetic clues and in question VIII he is only speaking of allowing, not of any necessity. Or rather, the guy who wrote the question is, but that means Fulcran Vigouroux too.

There actually is, if you look over the three chapters, at least one expression where at least one of the parts is not the proper and usual sense of the words in everyday life.

Genesis 2:17 But of the tree of knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat. For in what day soever thou shalt eat of it, thou shalt die the death.

Either "what day soever" is improperly used for "millennium" or "die" is not used about bodily death. Adam died spiritually the same moment, and he died bodily the same millennium. But spiritual death and millennium are not the proper ways in whcih "death" and "day" are usually used. When it comes to anthropomorphic language, it seems clear that up to Adam's sin, he could see and hear God, and I would hold, this refers to a theophany, i e, he could do so with his physical eyes and ears. This means, God looking for Adam was not just an anthropological expression about what God did spiritually, but God taking a visible shape actually did play hide and seek for that last day Adam had in Paradise. However, if Fr. Fulcran consided this false, this is not really the point I am trying to make.

The fact remains, Fr. Vigouroux never was precisely judging on such or such an expression actually needing metaphoric or less man-shaped interpretation. He was just saying IF there were such a thing, such interpretation is licit.

Fast Forward to 1992. A doubtful Pope or more probably certain non-Pope, Karol Wojtyla, issues a new catechism, for the Latin Church. For those who don't know, the Catholic Church has several rites, Latin and Byzantine being the two foremost. The Byzantine Rite has the catechism Jesus, Our Pascha. But the Latin Rite, or those of it accepting "John Paul II" as real Pope, has the catechism "Catechism of the Catholic Church" ... it has a § 390. I'll actually take a look at another one too:

390 The account of the fall in Genesis 3 uses figurative language, but affirms a primeval event, a deed that took place at the beginning of the history of man. Revelation gives us the certainty of faith that the whole of human history is marked by the original fault freely committed by our first parents.

...

397 Man, tempted by the devil, let his trust in his Creator die in his heart and, abusing his freedom, disobeyed God's command. This is what man's first sin consisted of. All subsequent sin would be disobedience toward God and lack of trust in his goodness.

398 In that sin man preferred himself to God and by that very act scorned him. He chose himself over and against God, against the requirements of his creaturely status and therefore against his own good. Constituted in a state of holiness, man was destined to be fully "divinized" by God in glory. Seduced by the devil, he wanted to "be like God", but "without God, before God, and not in accordance with God".

399 Scripture portrays the tragic consequences of this first disobedience. Adam and Eve immediately lose the grace of original holiness. They become afraid of the God of whom they have conceived a distorted image - that of a God jealous of his prerogatives.


So, are Adam and Eve the "our first parents"? Or does "uses figurative language" involve Adam and Eve being figures of speech? That's the problem.

The first mention of Adam in this section in § 388 says "We must know Christ as the source of grace in order to know Adam as the source of sin." — But this is clearly false, since the Jews of the first Century knew Adam as source of human sin before knowing, only some of them, Christ as their redeemer. Or as source of Grace. § 388 makes the first sin of Adam so much a theological statement, that its character as a historic statement seems fudged.

This does not represent the Catholic tradition. 17.VI.1546 the Church** said:

If any one does not confess that the first man, Adam, when he had transgressed the commandment of God in Paradise, immediately lost the holiness and justice wherein he had been constituted; and that he incurred, through the offence of that prevarication, the wrath and indignation of God, and consequently death, with which God had previously threatened him, and, together with death, captivity under his power who thenceforth had the empire of death, that is to say, the devil, and that the entire Adam, through that offence of prevarication, was changed, in body and soul, for the worse; let him be anathema.


No "our first parents" and no "man" (as an abstract or collective entity), but "the first man" (prior to even Eve) is immediately explained as Adam. There is absolutely no distinction between the theological and the historic level of the statement. The historic level is not a "portrayal" of the theological one, much less one that "uses figurative language" ... and as obviously, the knowledge of Adam's fall was a perfectly historical one, if you look up*** Father George Leo Haydock's comment on Genesis 3.

Concerning the transactions of these early times, parents would no doubt be careful to instruct their children, by word of mouth, before any of the Scriptures were written; and Moses might derive much information from the same source, as a very few persons formed the chain of tradition, when they lived so many hundred years. Adam would converse with Mathusalem, who knew Sem, as the latter lived in the days of Abram. Isaac, Joseph, and Amram, the father of Moses, were contemporaries: so that seven persons might keep up the memory of things which had happened 2500 years before. But to entitle these accounts to absolute authority, the inspiration of God intervenes; and thus we are convinced, that no word of sacred writers can be questioned. (Haydock)


We are far from the mental universe in which Adam's first sin is only accessible knowledge through Jesus' reversal of it. We are firmly in a world where Adam and Eve transmitted the events to Moses, through a limited number of intermediaries. 1909 was still Catholic in the Vatican. So was the Catholic minority in England in 1811—1814, when Haydock published his Bible commentary. Whoever was in charge in 1992, writing § 390 and the other ones, well, seemingly not.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Paris
St. Porphyrius of Gaza
26.II.2024

Gazae, in Palaestina, sancti Porphyrii Episcopi, qui, tempore Arcadii Imperatoris, Marnam idolum ejusque templum evertit, ac, multa passus, quievit in Domino.

* PONTIFICIA COMMISSIO BIBLICA : DE CHARACTERE HISTORICO TRIUM PRIORUM CAPITUM GENESEOS
https://www.vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/pcb_documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_19090630_genesi_lt.html


** Citing canon 1 of
The Council of Trent : CONCERNING ORIGINAL SIN; FIRST DECREE
http://www.thecounciloftrent.com/ch5.htm


*** Citing last section of the last verse comment of
Haydock Commentary Online : Genesis 3
https://haydockcommentary.com/genesis-3

mercredi 21 février 2024

Convergence of Uneven pmC?


Have you Really Taken ALL the Factors into Account? · New Tables · Why Should one Use my Tables? · And what are the lineups between archaeology and Bible, in my tables? · Bases of C14 · An example of using previous · Difference with Carbon 14 from Other Radioactive Methods · Tables I-II and II-III and III-IV, Towards a Revision? · The Revision of I-II, II-III, III-IV May be Unnecessary, BUT Illustrates What I Did When Doing the First Version of New Tables · Convergence of Uneven pmC? · [Calculation on paper commented on] · Other Revision of I-II ? · Where I Agree with Uniformitarian Dating Experts

HGL'S F.B. WRITINGS: Table I to II Perhaps Doubled Beginning (Upper / Lower Limits) ? · Creation vs. Evolution: Convergence of Uneven pmC?

My latest correction so far for the carbon date of the Flood sets it at precisely 39 000 BP.

But what if there was actually a range? If samples from then did not have all precisely 1.628 pmC, but rather* as per 1) content in volcanic gas ranging from 0.4 to 4.8 pmC in the present, and 2) this after a decay to c. 54.748 % of the original content, originally 3) an atmosphere had a content of 0.73 to 8.767 pmC? The Flood date would then not be precisely 39 000 BP, but 45 680 to 25 080 BP. This is fairly close to the CMI statement of Flood items dating between 50 000 and 20 000 BP.**

I will now assume, somewhat unrealistically, that they mingle perfectly, without similar divergence,

I - II 2957 - 2607 = 350
95.854 %, compensates normally 4.146 pmC
 
I - II lower I - II higher
0.73 * 95.854 / 100 = 0.7
43.438 - 0.7 = 42.738
42.738 / 4.146 = 10.308
 8.767 * 95.854 / 100 = 8.404
43.438 - 8.404 = 35.034
35.034 / 4.146 = 8.45


Perhaps it is more useful to divide the table into larger time chunks, like 50 years? 99.397 %, 0.603 pmC normal replacement, replacement here between 6.216 and 5.095 pmC points.

2957 BC
0.73 pmC, so dated 43 680 BC
8.767 pmC, so dated 23 080 BC

2907 BC
6.941 pmC, so dated 24957 BC
13.809 pmC, so dated 19257 BC

2857 BC
13.115 pmC, so dated 19 657 BC
18.822 pmC, so dated 16 657 BC

2807 BC
19.252 pmC, so dated 16 407 BC
23.803 pmC, so dated 14 657 BC

2757 BC
25.351 pmC, so dated 14 107 BC
28.755 pmC, so dated 13 057 BC

2707 BC
31.414 pmC, so dated 12 257 BC
33.677 pmC, so dated 11 707 BC

2657 BC
37.441 pmC, so dated 10 757 BC
38.569 pmC, so dated 10 557 BC

2607 BC
43.431 pmC, so dated 9507 BC
43.432 pmC, so dated 9507 BC


Now, the reason why this convergence is somewhat unrealistic is, towards the end of this time period, you have the Younger Dryas. Part of the impact would have added lots of carbon 14.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Paris
Ember Wednesday
21.II.2024

* Table I to II Perhaps Doubled Beginning (Upper / Lower Limits) ?
** See footnote 4 on their article, on this occasion the one of Joel Tay responding to Phil K., Triceratops soft tissue

dimanche 18 février 2024

For Anyone Disputing the Relevance of Genesis 5 and 11, the Genealogy of Matthew is a Go To


Does Genesis 1 through 11 have an author prior to Moses? · Whoever the "Astute Observer" was — Science and Factually Exact Are Not the Same · Should One NOT Read Donald J. Wiseman? · For Anyone Disputing the Relevance of Genesis 5 and 11, the Genealogy of Matthew is a Go To

Young Earth Creationists don't dispute the chronological relevance of Genesis 5 and 11, they believe it.

Atheists don't dispute it either, they use it as a way of attacking the Bible.

I don't know if there are Jews who believe the historicity of the Exodus and not the chronology of Genesis 5 and 11.

The people I am speaking of are people who believe the historicity of the Gospel and not the chronology of Genesis 5 and 11. In the last century there have been many of them. C. S. Lewis for very long into his life as an Anglican and carreere as Christian Apologist, certainly, J. R. R. Tolkien, probably. A certain Damien Macckey seems (perhaps) to have joined their ranks:

Matthew’s Genealogy of Jesus the Messiah far from straightforward
by Damien F. Mackey
https://www.academia.edu/115036022/Matthews_Genealogy_of_Jesus_the_Messiah_far_from_straightforward


Now, he does cite Monsignor John McCarthy and the Church Fathers.

The omission of Ahaziah Joash (Jehoash) and Amaziah, is because they descend from Joram's wife Athaliah. An idolatrous woman. Three generations are omitted because they are too close to her. During the Old Covenant, God visited the sins of the parents onto third and fourth generation (inclusive), so, 1) Athaliah, 2) Ahaziah 3) Joash (Jehoash) and 4) Amaziah are omitted for this reason, and Joram is not omitted, because Athaliah began overtly sinning after his death. Athaliah would perhaps have been omitted anyway, since a woman, otherwise, she would have been a woman of worse special connotation to cite than Rahab, prostitute, Ruth, Gentile, Bathseeba, adulteress. The French playwright Racine so to speak "makes up for the omission" by making her antagonist of an eponymous play.

Now, what Mackey doesn't get, and I don't pretend to fully and definitely understand either, is the omission of Jehoiachim. But on one occasion, he had previously identified him with Haman.*

Either way, I certainly trust the wisdom of the Church Fathers on this matter, and this would, for those who prefer "full LXX" over Julius Africanus on the chronology of Genesis 11 (1070 over 942 years) can take this as a cue: the famous or infamous second Cainan can have actually lived, been omitted in the Hebrew text by Moses on this principle, though kept in memory orally, then been inserted into the actual text in the LXX, as a cultural translation, Greeks not having this custom of "damnatio memoriae" ...

Now, the quibble is, with overlaps, we don't really deal with 3 * 14. Except we do. Not mathematically, but linguistically. We have three sets. Each set consists of 14 people who are different persons. The fact of an overlap between the sets is irrelevant. 42 as such isn't relevant. The relevant part is each set is 14, like Daleth Vav Daleth, the name of the fourteenth from Abraham. Or, even better, the fact of an overlap is relevant artistically. He's building an authentic and plagal scale in tetracaidecachords rather than tetrachords. In an authentic scale, they don't overlap:

DEFG
    ABCD


In a plagal scale, they do:

ABCD
   DEFG


What other 3 14 do we have? It would not be π-ous not to mention Exodus chapter 3 verse 14.

So, no years are given in the genealogy of St. Matthew. The only chronological information given is the big well known landmarks Abraham, King David, Babylonian Captivity, recent history. But what exact time from Abraham's birth to that of Jesus should we expect ? Matt Baker recently commented on a thesis of common ancestry and used "30 years" as an average.

41 * 30 = O, 3 * 14 ... seriously!

41 * 30 = 1230 years. No, Abraham was not born 1230 BC. However, we might want to add, sometimes generations were longer back then. What about 50? 41 * 50 = 2050 (decent, Jesus was born year 2015 after Abraham's birth). And if we skip the ritual and do the maths on physical reality? 45 generations? 2015 / 45 = 44.78 years per generation. Nearly as if there were 45 years of 45 generations. My grandpa was 47 when my mother was born. God bless her memory.*

The point is, whatever liberty St. Matthew took by omitting generations, it didn't distort the chronology by orders of magnitude. It didn't distort the chronology at all.

Now, in Genesis 5 and 11, some people would want us to believe, omissions could have distorted the chronology by orders of magnitude. 2242 + 942 = 3184 years. 2242 + 1070 = 3312 years. Already a dire indiction on the historic reliability of a tradition on Genesis 3 down to Abraham IF generations had been 30 years per generation. But they weren't, at least not the line leading down to Noah, and then the line leading down to Abraham. Abraham was 20th or 21st from Adam. But if we count minimally overlapping generations, Haydock counts Abraham fourth: "Adam would converse with Mathusalem, who knew Sem, as the latter lived in the days of Abram." I would put Abraham as sixth, counting this way. Either way, it is certain (except to hacks and infidels, sorry, I'm repeating myself) that Abraham had and maintained historic knowledge of the facts of Genesis 3. Suppose we played around and admitted the "fluidity level of Matthew"? 45 / 41 * 3312 = 3635 years. Abraham would be likely to come out at worst as number 8 — where Father Haydock put Moses. The historicity of Genesis 3 would not be compromised.

I do have a problem with the power of suggestion. The absolutely worst thing about Dr. Mackey's work is the title: Matthew’s Genealogy of Jesus the Messiah far from straightforward. If he had said, "not totally straightforward" — I'd agree. If he had said somewhere else than the title, it was far from straightforward for St. Matthew to produce, I'd see where he was coming from, but I'd say "that's not counting with Divine inspiration" (even I, who don't claim that, have an experience of what a "stroke of genius" means). But he places it in the title, doesn't immediately qualify in what way and therefore leaves the statement as unqualified as the main clue to the content. The impression this gives is disastrous. He pretends, "it is far from straightforward for us to read" ...

He wants to bolster a kind of doctrine of "obscurity of Scripture" so as to make the pronouncement of the magisterium not just overall, but for every specific issue, a bit like the answer clue to the quiz. Sure, the character of Jesus is to some somewhat of a quiz. Chesterton was right to state the teaching (not just magisterial pronouncement, but he specifically mentions iconography, which has its own version of imprimatur, well before the printing press) is the answer clue. The majority of mankind are not the kind of sly and mean Pharisees Jesus had to deal with on occasions, they are not the kind of greedy people whom Jesus faced with a whip in the Court of the Gentiles. Hence, the Church shows them the kind of smile He offered the repentance of Magdalene or the kind of sorrow He bore for our Redemption. But Chesterton was definitely NOT saying that the passages of the cleansings of the temple "are hard to understand" (as some fans of Tovia Singer have been pretending to find them). He was not saying "we can't tell if Genesis 5 means 2242 years or 22042 years, because Scripture's just SO obscure and it seems I can't find an infallible dogma on it" ... and if that's not what Dr. Mackey tried to suggest, perhaps he's not a very competent writer. As I think he is, I would say he intended the effect. Should I ask him to procure himself a very rare icon of Jesus in anger from the perspective of a money-changer, and use it for his devotions, until he repent?

Since this type of "obscurity of Scripture" doctrine actually has a prooftext, let's go to it, and leave it a decent comment after citing the indecent one. St. Peter is speaking of St. Paul:

As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are certain things hard to be understood, which the unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, to their own destruction.
[2 Peter 3:16]

The indecent comment goes: "see, it's sufficient to be unlearned and go to any of the scriptures, and you'll wrest it to your own destruction" ... that's not what St. Peter is saying. He's speaking of a specific type of person who is not just unlearned, but also unstable. And he's not speaking of unconscious wresting, but of a conscious effort to misunderstand, since the misunderstanding gives room for a fleeting pleasure of sin and error while considering oneself a Christian in good standing with God, like the idea of using Romans for the kind of "Romans road" approach that flatters the easily exhausted they don't need to fast, and need not combat sin, because we can't anyway and it's not necessary to get redeemed. Or similarily with people who love to cite a truncated and therefore faked version of Ephesians 2:8—10, same purpose. Or an equally truncated and faked version of Matthew 16:16—19 to pretend Petrine supremacy is based on a supposed misunderstanding of whom Jesus called "this rock" ... a lack of clarity that disappears like morning fog by 9 am in Spring in Spain. IF THEY JUST READ ONE VERSE MORE.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Paris
Quadragesima Lord's Day
18.II.2024

* His latest identification of Haman is ... not ...an Egyptian priest of Amun. It actually is still Jehoiachin:

According to my reconstruction, King Amon of Judah was the same person as Jehoiachin the Captive (which word the Greek text has wrongly reproduced as “Amalekite”).

vendredi 9 février 2024

Why is Carbon Dating More Important than Potassium Argon?


Creation vs. Evolution: Why is Carbon Dating More Important than Potassium Argon? · Assorted retorts from yahoo boards and elsewhere: Argon, Carbon, Magnetic Field · HGL'S F.B. WRITINGS: Ken Wolgemuth Understood the Argument · If Ken Wolgemuth Avoids Answering Me Directly, What Does That Say of Him? Update : he did some answering · He did some answering, though, to others ... · Ken Wolgemuth part IV

What are the equal percentages of parent isotope in relation to time?

For carbon dating, the half life is 5730 years. This is roughly speaking testable, or better, the combined presumption of this halflife along with a not radically rising carbon level in the atmosphere during the last 2500 years (I could have gone one step further but was lazy) is. 477 BC to 1523 AD are historical dates. For all of this time, we have lots of detailed information of who was what and when and where, so we can state "this coffin belongs to so and so" or "this table was commissioned for so and so" and so on.

This corresponds to carbon 14 levels given with pmC values. The abbreviation pmC stands for "percent modern Carbon" and could be further explicitated as "percent modern Carbon 14 corrected to pre-Industrial Values" but that's too long to use in even abbreviated form.

Alternative to the combined assumption of 100 pmC (roughly) and 5730 years halflife, at least for this kind of test, one could imagine twice as long a halflife, but Carbon 14 still on the rise, so that back in 1180 BC it had 80 pmC rather than 100 pmC, and then a steady rise from then. That would cause a kind of "bulge" on the calibration curve, but it would be covered by the other bulges and wiggles of it.

500 YA = 1523 AD
94.131 pmC
1000 YA = 1023 AD
88.606 pmC
1500 YA = 524 AD
83.406 pmC
2000 YA = 24 AD
78.511 pmC
2500 YA = 477 BC
73.903 pmC
 
108 900 524 YA = ?
94.131 "poK"
217 801 047 YA = ?
88.606 "poK"
326 701 571 YA = ?
83.406 "poK"
435 602 094 YA = ?
78.511 "poK"
544 502 618 YA = ?
73.903 "poK"


Now the point is, these exact same percentages in Potassium dating would involve totally uncheckable (at least historically, which I consider the main go to about the past) ages. How do you check an age "108 million years ago" without a Time Machine?

The abbreviation here is for "percent original K" or "percent original potassium" (K is for the alternative name Kalium, found in German and in Nordic languages). Both methods ideally compare the % to the original content. But they arrive there different ways. In carbon dating, it's presumed the atmosphere has been at least roughly stable, so it is actually the pre-Industrial present that's key to this past original content of the parent isotope. In carbon dating, the daughter isotope isn't used at all, it doesn't matter if carbon 14 decays to nitrigen 14 or to carbon 12, I have seen both of these assumed. But in K-Ar, the original content of K (potassium) is verified by adding the current contents of K and Ar (argon).

This is not the only fudge factor about K-Ar dating. The more important one is, the dating method presumes we get all argon from either air or previous reactions before eruption nullified by the argon escaping before lava solidifies. If the lava solidifies quickly and this can happen due to lots of cold water, argon will be trapped, and it will skew the results heavily.

In the Flood (I said history was my main go to for the past, didn't I?) lots of water could cool down the lava lots quicker than it cools normally now, and trap lots more of argon.

So, when I see a date of "2 mill. years" or "4 mill. years" I think I can calibrate that too. But in a much simpler way. With that much cool water, the date is 2958 BC (or whatever date you prefer setting as the Biblical date of the Flood.)

Hans Georg Lundahl
Paris
St. Apollonia of Alexandria
9.II.2024

samedi 3 février 2024

Should One NOT Read Donald J. Wiseman?


Does Genesis 1 through 11 have an author prior to Moses? · Whoever the "Astute Observer" was — Science and Factually Exact Are Not the Same · Should One NOT Read Donald J. Wiseman? · For Anyone Disputing the Relevance of Genesis 5 and 11, the Genealogy of Matthew is a Go To

That would be going too far.

When he states that Old Sumerian writings were present since 3000 or even 3500 BC, I disagree. 3500 BC was before the Flood, 3000 BC was shortly before the Flood or perhaps shortly after it depending on whether you go by the Roman Martyrology for Christmas Day or the chronology of George Syncellus.

Wiseman had no access to carbon dates.

But the dates he gives are close to these, and the chronology that was conventional in the early 1900's had already been monitored by lying moves of Satan (often enough in the records of ancient non-Hebrew peoples under his influence) in ways that would tend to match what God could tell him the later carbon dates were going to be.*

So, what are 3500, 3300, 3000 and 2800 in carbon dates, if we translate this to Biblical dates (using the Roman martyrology)?**

1935 B. Chr.
82.73 pmC, so dated as 3485 B. Chr.

1868 B. Chr.
84.1262 pmC, so dated as 3318 B. Chr.

1778 B. Chr.
85.9766 pmC, so dated as 3028 B. Chr.
1756 B. Chr.
86.4346 pmC, so dated as 2956 B. Chr.

1711 B. Chr.
87.3468 pmC, so dated as 2811 B. Chr.

(1778 + 1756) / 2 = 1767
(85.9766 + 86.4346) / 2 = 86.2056
1250 + 1767 = 3017


The real dates would be 1935 BC, 1868 BC, 1767 BC and 1711 BC.

Does this deny the related practise between Babylonian scribes and the parts of the Genesis that first used these systems? No.

Here are two of them, around page breaks*** 41 and 51:

Tablet series  Contents
1  1:1 to 2:4  This is the book of the origins of the heavens and the earth.
2  2:5 to 5:2  This is the book of the origins of Adam.
3  5:3 to 6:9a  These are the origins (or histories) of Noah.
4  6: 9b to 10:1  These are the origins (or histories) of the sons of Noah.
5  10:2 to 11:10a  These are the origins (or histories) of Shem.
6  11:10b to 11:27a  These are the origins (or histories) of Terah.
7 & 8  11:27b to 25:19a  These are the origins (or histories) of Ishmael and Isaac.
9~11  25:19b to 37:2a  These are the origins (or histories) of Esau and Jacob.


Evidence of these literary aids may be observed in the following significant repetition of words and phrases connected with the beginning or ending of each of the series of tablets, now incorporated in the book of Genesis.

1:1 God created the heavens and the earth.
2:4 Lord God made the heavens and the earth.
2:4 When they were created.
5:2 When they were created.
6:10 Shem, Ham and Japheth.
10:1 Shem, Ham and Japheth.
10:32 After the Flood.
11:10 After the Flood
11:26 Abram, Nahor and Haran.
11:27 Abram, Nahor and Haran.
25:12 Abraham's son.
25:19 Abraham's son.
36:1 Who is Edom.
36:8 Who is Edom.
36:9 father of the Edomites (lit. Father Edom).
36:43 father of the Edomites (lit. Father Edom).

The very striking repetitions of these phrases exactly where the tablets begin and end, will best be appreciated by those scholars acquainted with the methods of the scribes in Babylonia, for those were the arrangements then in use to link the tablets together. I submit that the repetition of these words and phrases precisely in those verses attached to the colophon, 'These are the origins of ... ', cannot possibly be a mere coincidence. They have remained buried in the text of Genesis, their significance apparently unnoticed.


However, that P.J.Wiseman did the original work, republished*** by his son D.J. Wiseman, cited by Charles V Taylor and Damien Mackey alike, doesn't mean he saw all issues correctly. It is perfectly OK to depend on one purely human author for an idea, while stating he was plain wrong on some other account. One thing Wiseman did not have access to was this:

Prehistory: The Making Of The Human Mind (English Edition) Format Kindle
Édition en Anglais de Colin Renfrew (Auteur)
https://www.amazon.fr/Prehistory-Making-Human-Mind-English-ebook/dp/B00AJ20NR4/


So, what difference does this make?

Well, it records human sacrifice in the III Dynasty of Ur, servants sacrificed to keep the company of the dead king. Here° is from the French translation:

La découverte la plus spectaculaire fut effectuée non loin de là, dans le grand cimitière dela ville sumérienne d'Ur, par Sir Leonard Woolley. En 1928, il exhuma les "tombes royales", des tombeaux intacts datant de 2300 av. J.-C. remplis d'or et de lapis-lazuli, et portant la trace des rites funéraires, dont la mise à mort de dizaines de serviteurs qui accompagnent leurs maîtres. (P. 38)


Did Wolley already date them like that? Did Wiseman know?

The thing is, if you believe God is good, you don't believe He would allow this to take place around the ancestors of Abraham. Yet, 2300 BC, that's before the birth of Abraham. Whose native city many consider was this Ur of Woolley, rather than the Urfa way further North-West in Mesopotamia.

I'm not suggesting, even if the date had been correct, that Thera, Nachor or Sarug would have been involved in this horror, but some who pretend that Genesis 1 to 11 is essentially, as to the story line if not theology "pagan myth" point to the idea of Abraham having been born into an (entirely) pagan family. To me, this is obviously false, since carbon dated 2300 = 1644 BC in real time:

1655 B. Chr.
91.4498 pmC, so dated as 2395 B. Chr.
1633 B. Chr.
93.3283 pmC, so dated as 2203 B. Chr.

1644 (obviously)
(91.4498 + 93.3283) / 2 = 92.38905
650 + 1644 = 2294


And since real time 1935 BC, when Abraham was 80, is carbon dated (by reed mats from En-Gedi / Asason Tamar) to 3500 BC, meaning that this horrible human sacrifice certainly took place some important time after Abraham had already left whatever Ur he came from.

Sarug to Abraham played the role of Lord Francis of Sales to the young saint, of the same name, when telling the young saint "Calvinism is a young religion, I've seen it born" — because Sarug was indeed anterior to the time of idolatry.

Genesis 11, LXX / English : 22 And Seruch lived a hundred and thirty years, and begot Nachor. 23 And Seruch lived after he had begotten Nachor, two hundred years, and begot sons and daughters, and died. 24 And Nachor lived a hundred and seventy-nine years, and begot Thara. 25 And Nachor lived after he had begotten Thara, an hundred and twenty-five years, and begot sons and daughters, and he died. 26 And Thara lived seventy years, and begot Abram, and Nachor, and Arrhan.


2015 (birth of Abram) + 70 (of Thera) + 179 (of Nachor) + 130 (of Sarug) = 2394 BC. When Sarug was 94, he was very far from seeing this kind of human sacrifice, here are his early days in themselves and translated to carbon dates:

2399 B. Chr.
57.0291 pmC, so dated as 7049 B. Chr.

2287 B. Chr.
63.387 pmC so dated as 6037 B. Chr.


Ah, that's more like it. Sarug was from an earlier and saner age than Abraham, not an earlier and insaner one. Even the temporary resurgence of cannibalism (a pre-Flood sin), in Herxheim, El Toro and Fontbrégoua, start after Sarug was already a man, and far away in the west.°° So, really no trace of idolatry from when Sarug was small, nor of even more evil practises, like the III Dynasty of Ur ... or whenever this evil was.

The Third Dynasty of Ur, also called the Neo-Sumerian Empire, refers to a 22nd to 21st century BC (middle chronology) Sumerian ruling dynasty based in the city of Ur and a short-lived territorial-political state which some historians consider to have been a nascent empire.

The Third Dynasty of Ur is commonly abbreviated as Ur III by historians studying the period. It is numbered in reference to previous dynasties, such as the First Dynasty of Ur (26-25th century BC), but it seems the once supposed Second Dynasty of Ur was never recorded.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Third_Dynasty_of_Ur


I actually traced the horror to the First Dynasty of Ur.

The introduction of massive death pits at Ur is usually associated to Meskalamdug, one of the kings of Ur that was also known as the paramount ruler of all the Sumerians. He started the practice of such a massive entombment with the sacrifice of soldiers and an entire choir of women to accompany him in the afterlife.


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Meskalamdug

It has also been suggested that the Great Death Pit was the tomb of Mesannepada.


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mesannepada

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Royal_Cemetery_at_Ur


This first year of the 26th C. BC was obviously 2600 BC:

1678 B. Chr.
89.4653 pmC, so dated as 2598 B. Chr.


The Hebrews were already in Egypt, at a very safe distance from being contaminated by Meskalamdug or Mesannepada.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Paris
St. Blasius
3.II.2024

* That is raw carbon dates, or standard calibrations, carbon dates in assuming the original carbon content of the atmosphere was 100 pmC, or vaccillating closely around that value.

** Real dates to carbon dates, here as in the following:

Creation vs. Evolution: New Tables
https://creavsevolu.blogspot.com/2020/08/new-tables.html


*** Percy John Wiseman, Clues to Creation in Genesis
https://info2.sermon-online.com/english/PercyJohnWiseman/Clues_To_Creation_In_Genesis_1977.pdf


° Quoted via my post:

Φιλολoγικά/Philologica : Colin Renfrew, Marxisme, Anthropologie A-Chrétienne
https://filolohika.blogspot.com/2018/10/colin-renfrew-marxisme-anthropologie.html


°° See my post:
Assorted retorts from yahoo boards and elsewhere : Abraham Ended Evil Cannibals
https://assortedretorts.blogspot.com/2023/02/abraham-ended-evil-cannibals.html

vendredi 2 février 2024

Whoever the "Astute Observer" was — Science and Factually Exact Are Not the Same


Does Genesis 1 through 11 have an author prior to Moses? · Whoever the "Astute Observer" was — Science and Factually Exact Are Not the Same · Should One NOT Read Donald J. Wiseman? · For Anyone Disputing the Relevance of Genesis 5 and 11, the Genealogy of Matthew is a Go To

There has been a time (or maybe even more than once) in the past 100 to 150 years, when the Seine was so high, it touched the feet of the Zouave statue on the Pont de l'Alma in Paris.

This is not usually the case. This* is from 2013:

La Seine atteignait samedi matin 9 février 3,86m de haut et le zouave du pont de l'Alma, célèbre statue qui sert de repère aux Parisiens, avait les pieds dans l'eau.

Mercredi, le fleuve avait été mesuré à 3,79 mètres mercredi, à l'échelle située au pont d'Austerlitz, alors que son niveau habituel est de 2 mètres.


The Seine is (in Paris) usually 2 m (6 ft, 6~7 in) above river bottom. As on Saturday, the 9th of February, 2013, it was unusually 3.79 m (12 ft 5 in), the Zouave had the feet in the water.

Here is a "dry feet" version of him, by the way:



The Zouave statue in 2004
Greudin and one more author - Own work | Public Domain
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zouave_(Pont_de_l%27Alma)#/media/File:Paris-zouave-pont-de-l-alma.jpg


I think I had evoked this some time before 2013, on an early blog of mine. Cannot find it, was it perhaps taken down after the 2013 event?**

Anyway, the thing is, we have some even higher levels according to Le Parisien:

En 2001, la Seine avait atteint 5m21 et lors de la grande crue de 1910, elle a culminé à 8m62.


Grande crue means "big flooding" and the measures are 5.21 m = 17 ft 1 in; 8.62 = 28 ft 3 in.

The thing is, if I say that the Seine in 1910 went past its normal 6 ft 7 in to 28 ft 3 in, I am not claiming to be a hydrologist.

If a hydrologist said "that can't happen" and I say, "yes, it happened in 1910" I am still not claiming to be a hydrologist.

If a hydrologist asked me for a credible source and I said "Le Parisien" I would not be claiming this newspaper were a scientific committee of hydrologists. I would just state that I had confidence in Le Parisien's reporting, that one should have confidence in its reporting, that this primes over any a priori a hydrologist could come up with.

Now, a hydrologist might not be so stupid as to deny the flooding of 1910. But somehow, when some other types of scientific specialists come up with a priori's or other calculations against the account of the Bible, to some people this equates to misconstruing the Bible as "a modern science publication" ... it's no more that than Le Parisien is Journal of Hydrology, and it's no more claiming that than I am claiming that Le Parisien is Journal of Hydrology.***

Factual exactness is not the monopoly of either modernity or science. The alternative to "exact down to three decimal points" is not just "vastly exaggerated so the factuality if any cannot be discerned" and the problem with denying the globality of the Flood from an exegetical p o v is that "large regional flood" is not a kind of "more precisely" you can add to a "round number" ....

So, the "astute observer" may be ex-KGB Kirill of his partner in Ecumenical crime Ratzinger, or both, or someone else — but on this item, he was extremely far from being "astute" .../HGL

For the Zouave, see also:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zouave_(Pont_de_l%27Alma)#/media/File:Zouave_du_pont_de_l'Alma_le_3_juin_2016.jpg

I am not using it, since I will not allow others to add to this work, according to the share alike condition, CC BY-SA 4.0, hence just linking to it. I think that lots of my troubles about getting an editor is some kind of French jurisprudence that sees only three copyright levels to a work, copyrighted, public domain, and between them the one and only CC BY-SA 4.0. No, one can dispose of one's authorship in other ways, which is what I did.

* Le Parisien : EN IMAGES. Le zouave du pont de l'Alma a les pieds dans l'eau
Le 9 février 2013 à 16h27
https://www.leparisien.fr/paris-75/en-images-le-zouave-du-pont-de-l-alma-a-les-pieds-dans-l-eau-09-02-2013-2554059.php


** Not by me, though.

*** Science Direct : Journal of Hydrology (Open Access)
https://www.sciencedirect.com/journal/journal-of-hydrology/publish/open-access-options

Does Genesis 1 through 11 have an author prior to Moses?


Does Genesis 1 through 11 have an author prior to Moses? · Whoever the "Astute Observer" was — Science and Factually Exact Are Not the Same · Should One NOT Read Donald J. Wiseman? · For Anyone Disputing the Relevance of Genesis 5 and 11, the Genealogy of Matthew is a Go To

I am obviously not even envisaging JEPD as potentially true, that's the kind of madness people abuse their academic personnel for when they resolutely turn their back on the obvious and usually also true answer.

The other day, I read how in 1850, the rotation of the earth had been proven. No, it hadn't. The supposals used for taking Foucault's Pendulum (1851, not 1850) and three experiments in falling bodies (Benzenberg, Reich and before the Guilielmini, all three before 1850) as proof for this involve the unproven assumption, now abandoned by modern physics, that space is empty coordinates. I actually read that Brahe had been disproven. No. Even with rotation of the earth, unproven and counterintuitive as it is, the Earth could still have been direct centre for Moon, Sun, Fix-Stars and have the Sun as moving epicentre for "planets" (other than Sun and Moon, and including asteroids and comets, and with Titan or Io having one moving epicentre more, namely Saturn and Jupiter). The assumption involved in "disproving" this is, either a) God hates spirograph patterns, thinks they are too ugly for heaven, even in orbits (Copernicus' take), or b) this can't be since the movements are too complex for gravity and inertia, and God and angels either don't exist or wouldn't want to move either heaven or heavenly bodies.

The point is not that I'm an expert in astronomy. I'm hardly even an amateur. The point is, the assumptions made by the experts are published and known, and can therefore be criticised by non-experts, including myself.

Dito for the JEPD hypothesis. One of the assumptions, never stated and indeed never even admitted, so absurd is it, is "if Jews, Samaritans and Christians believed it was written by Moses, then therefore Moses can't have written it, such traditions of a religion are never right." This is a fairly open admission of animosity towards the God of the Old Testament, and a scholar who presents himself as serving a university faculty in theology usually wouldn't want to alienate all Church institutions by stating "we are Marcionites or Albigensians here, Jews and Catholics are not welcome" — but another one is pretty absurd too. It's that if two names for God, JHVH (Adonai) and Elohim, occur in different places of a text, it's really two conflated texts, one of the original authors using JHVH (Adonai) and the other using Elohim. A single author varying his names for God is seemingly not even on the list. A third is, if something markedly differs from Babylonian theology, while parallelling a Babylonian narratives (Flood section of the Gilgamesh Epic or Enuma Elish or Sumerian King List), the Babylonian narrative was naively taken over as overall narrative, the theological differences are the polemics against Babylonian theology, and that polemics is all there is of the real message of the Hebrew author ... who must obviously have been posterior to when Hebrews had their first admittedly welldocumented (i e in non-Hebrew sources) encounters with Babylonians. Both people inheriting the story that Noah had to tell, and his three sons had to tell, and the Babylonians being the people twisting history for purposes of adapting it to bad theology (like probably even eliminating a first human couple), somehow also not on the list.

There is a very different approach, which is not very often expressed in traditional Catholic scholarship, neither very much among today's Young Earth Creationists, at least not the ones I have a look on. The Hebrews knew nothing at all or had contradictory views about Henoch the son of Jared. On this view, not my view. Then Moses, precisely as God spoke to him and said He would send an angel before the people, Exodus 33, also received Genesis 4 and 5 like that. And while we are at it, the Hebrews didn't even need to go through the Red Sea, and remember it, it's sufficient that God spoke to Moses and told him to write the narrative in Exodus 14 and they somehow believed him. This is a parodic version of one idea about how Divine Inspiration for Scripture works, taken over from an idea of the Quran, when Mohammed is only dictating the Quran when "Allah" speaks to him, and the rest, the Al-Sīra al-Nabawiyya, for instance, is, venerable, but lower than what God dictated. To us, history which is in the Bible is not lower than what God dictated, even if it is not dictated this way. We can say God chose the words, but God did not take away natural sources, like prior histories or testimonies, He gave the hagiographer good and infallible judgement about them, and a correct choice of words.

So, given that Moses did the Exodus 430 years after God had given his promise to Abraham (and some would say more, claiming erroneously the 430 years started when Jacob went to Egypt and was received by his son Joseph, but the 430 years started pretty much right away, Abraham was living as an immigrant, certainly an immigrant Beduin with a large tribe, but an immigrant none-the-less), Abraham was not in a position to speak to Moses. And given that the Flood happened 292, 942 or 1070 years before Abraham was even born, depending on text, Moses could not have a chat with Noah either. So, given divine dictation was not Moses' (sole) source of knowledge, and given that contemporaneous testimony was no longer contemporaneous when Moses wrote, what happened?

P. J. Wiseman, like I. M. Kikawada and A. Quinn, will present a case for the more traditional view of the Book of Genesis against JEDP theory, though with a twist. Moses substantially the author of the Pentateuch, was not properly speaking the author of Genesis, but its editor.


I just cited:
Genesis, a finely unified tapestry
by Damien F. Mackey (on Academia)
https://www.academia.edu/114367942/Genesis_a_finely_unified_tapestry


So, Damien Mackey is attempting to give a review of three scholars that say Moses had sources. I agree on that point, if not on all the other ones. Here is one I don't agree on:

Perhaps somewhat more surprisingly, the same can basically be said for the fundamentalist biblical approach, ridiculed by Kikawada and Quinn as reactionary.

For although those, such as the Creationists for instance, might give the impression of their complete dedication to uncovering the truths of the Bible - and I am sure that that is generally their sincere intention - they, too, read the text from a modern, generally Westernised, scientific point of view. In fact one astute commentator has rightly described Creationism as a form of modernism, attempting to reduce Genesis to science.


Damien Mackey is, if so, very far from à jour with current Creationist literature. We regard Genesis, not as true systematic science, but as true, chronological, sequence of events history. When I say "history" and not "historiography", some may object that it's not historic research conducted in the way that modern scholars conduct historic research. It's a very ancient historiography. Yes, but history the way that modern scholars conduct historic research is a very modern historiography. History primarily, throughout history, means what certain modern historians would call historiography.

I don't think modern historians are to be confused with scientists, and the ones doing so are not us Creationists, it's the ones pretending we confuse Genesis with science, when in fact we don't.

In fact, sorry, Damien, the paper just shown is an 18 minute read, and I'm trying to get this post finished, I may return to the 18 minute read later.

First, "with a twist ... not properly speaking the author of Genesis, but its editor." The question is, is this even a twist on the traditional view or is it the traditional view? Let's compare the idea that Samuel was the author of Judges:

This Book is called Judges, because it contains the history of what passed under the government of the judges, who ruled Israel before they had kings. The writer of it, according to the more general opinion, was the prophet Samuel. (Challoner)

Some are of opinion, that the judges might have each left records of their respective administrations, (Menochius) which might be put in order by Samuel. The author of this book seems to have lived under the reign of Saul, before David had expelled the Jebusites, chap. xviii. 31. (Du Hamel)


Haydock's Catholic Bible Commentary, 1859 edition. JUDGES - Introduction
https://johnblood.gitlab.io/haydock/id564.html


Basically, when we say that Samuel is author of Judges, we mean that Samuel is in some sense final editor of Judges.

Before we return to Genesis, we'll take a look at Judges. The book starts after the death of Joshua, and Samuel lived 100's of years later. Judges is basically a work of cumulative narration and cumulative authorship. A diary has single authorship, but cumulative narration. The Anglo-Saxon Chronicle has cumulative narration, but through cumulative authorship. I believe Judges is essentially this kind of book. With Samuel as final editor.

Now, this brings up the question, was there a kind of summing up within the book of Genesis, for instance 1 to 11 or 2 to 11, prior to Moses?

Here I will first cite Haydock:

Concerning the transactions of these early times, parents would no doubt be careful to instruct their children, by word of mouth, before any of the Scriptures were written; and Moses might derive much information from the same source, as a very few persons formed the chain of tradition, when they lived so many hundred years. Adam would converse with Mathusalem, who knew Sem, as the latter lived in the days of Abram. Isaac, Joseph, and Amram, the father of Moses, were contemporaries: so that seven persons might keep up the memory of things which had happened 2500 years before. But to entitle these accounts to absolute authority, the inspiration of God intervenes; and thus we are convinced, that no word of sacred writers can be questioned. (Haydock)


Haydock's etc. GENESIS - Chapter 3
https://johnblood.gitlab.io/haydock/id329.html


So, he believed in oral tradition of each event (at the very least for the Genesis 3 event) up to the time of Moses, who relied (and was right in relying) on his family tradition.

I take a somewhat different approach.

Who Wrote Genesis? Are the Toledoth Colophons?
by Charles V Taylor, M.A., Ph.D., PGCE, LRAM, FIL, Cert. Theol. | This article is from
Journal of Creation 8(2):204–211, August 1994
https://creation.com/who-wrote-genesis-are-the-toledoth-colophons


Charles Taylor, and lots of Creationists after him, have taken the view, each of the patriarchs wrote, on a physical material. Again, Moses stringed the work together.

I take a view somewhat intermediate between Father Haydock and Charles V Taylor.

Oral tradition could have taken place all along the way up to Abraham. Or the tradition was written, and lost, and orally transmitted to Abraham. The reason why I believe the chapters up to 11 that have human observers implied for the events were orally transmitted to Abraham is, they are different, they are shorter, while later chapters of Genesis are more prolix. Why is that important? Because shortness is a very good way to keep a text memorisable, without written support. African Griots and Homeric aoidoi can memorise a list (Ship Catalogue and the Genealogy of Kunta Kinte existed orally, before taken down by the sons of Peisistratus or by Alex Haley). But the reason they can do it well is, each item in the list is, within that list, memorised as an item, a sentence, not several paragraphs. And the narratives, just as much as table of nations (Genesis 10) or as genealogies in Genesis 5 or 11 or the unchronological one in Genesis 4, are also short. We don't get dialogues between God and a patriarch about what to do in the face of another patriarch, as later on (Jacob and Laban). Hence, sufficiently few necessary intermediates (plus as many as possible redundant ones) plus shortness of text, makes a text transmittable.

Genesis 3 (as mentioned), could have been transmitted to Abraham this way, all the way from Adam and Eve. Or they could have been written down, Sarug had long time access to the books, but they were taken away when his son and grandson became idolaters, so, he had to transmit it to Abraham from memory.

Either way, from Abraham on to the migration to Egypt, the Beduin tribe that became the Ancient People of God could transport the very short text mass on camel back, and from Joseph's arrival to power and on, the camel back archives and the narrative of Joseph's own misfortunes and fortune could be restored in Goshen. This is the kind of material that Moses dealt with. It's rationally speaking at the very least, even if we do not bring Divine inspiration into the picture, a roughly speaking reliable historiography of events. The alternatives this contradicts are not better or more reliable historiography (including for Egypt), it's not science that's as good as Coulombe's law or Newtons III Law of Movement, its reconstruction and pseudo-science, on level with the infamous JEPD theory.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Nanterre UL
Candlemass
2.II.2024