In Who controls the kingdoms of this world? the late Russell Grigg argued, that the answer was, right now, Satan.
I have argued elsewhere, this is very incorrect, since Crucifixion and Resurrection, Satan has lost this power too, and Our Lord has gained the domination by victory.
Luke 4 and Matthew 4 both occurred before the Crucifixion.
Here is a key passage in Russell's argument:
In fact, Jesus referred to Satan as “the god of this world” (John 12:31; 14:30; 16:11); and the Apostle Paul similarly wrote concerning Satan that “the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, to keep them from seeing the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God” (2 Corinthians 4:4).
So, "prince" or "ruler of this world" is supposed to be not just tantamount to but also textually identic to "god of this world"?
Let's check the Gospel verses:
Now is the judgment of the world: now shall the prince of this world be cast out
[John 12:31]
I will not now speak many things with you. For the prince of this world cometh, and in me he hath not any thing
[John 14:30]
And of judgment: because the prince of this world is already judged
[John 16:11]
In all three verses, I find "prince" and not "god" ...
Now, to St. Paul, and I'll give the previous verse too:
And if our gospel be also hid, it is hid to them that are lost In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of unbelievers, that the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God, should not shine unto them
[2 Corinthians 4:3-4]
There is actually a dispute on whether the words in question refer to God or to Satan. Here is the Haydock comment on these two verses:
Ver. 3. The apostle here brings another proof of the sincerity of his preaching, viz. the success with which it is attended: And he says, if there be any who have not yet received it, that is their own fault. For had they been as eager to receive it, as we have been to announce it to them, the whole world had[would have?] long since been converted. (Theodoret)
Ver. 4. In whom the God of this world hath blinded the minds of unbelievers.[1] Thus the words are placed, both in the Latin and Greek text, so that the true God seems to be called the God of this world, as he is elsewhere called the God of heaven, the God of Abraham. God, says St. Chrysostom, blinded, that is, permitted them to be blinded. Others translate, in whom God hat blinded the minds of the infidels of this world; so that this world may be joined with unbelievers, and not with God: and by the God of this world, some understand the devil, called sometimes the prince of this world, that is, of the wicked. (Witham)
Now, supposing that "the God of this world" actually refers to an enemy of souls, one active in blinding and not just permitting or confirming some to blind themselves, St. Thomas (yes, he wrote a commentary on II Corinthians) doesn't take "god" as "prince" or "ruler" but actually simply as "object of worship". One can refer to Poseidon as a "god of the Greeks" or to Thor as a "god of the Norse" ... and insofar as they are worshipped, it is Satan who gets the worship. It's a very different story if God would still permit Poseidon, i e Satan, to run a stampedo of horses over a man, because that man's father (who takes Poseidon for his own father) is asking him. At least up to when Antichrist will be doing his signs and wonders, that power has been taken away from Satan. Precisely by Jesus.
In other words, Satan is not in control of a kingdom just because it is a kingdom in this world. Not as in Matthew 4 / Luke 4, not any longer. He may be in control of a kingdom because its inhabitants have rejected Christ and as a result are brought under the enemy of Christ.
Hans Georg Lundahl
Paris
Commemoration of St. Paul the Apostle
30.VI.2025
PS. During the Old Testament, God claimed one people for Himself. In AD 33 (or assessments of exactly how long ago vary, some say 29 or 31) most of that people rejected God. The ones who didn't are the beginning of the Christian Palestinians./HGL
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