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vendredi 7 octobre 2016

Oil Drillers See Several Sea Layers



I should have answered this one earlier.

Claim CD101:
http://www.talkorigins.org/indexcc/CD/CD101.html
The geological column is a fiction, existing on paper only. The entire geological column does not exist anywhere on the earth.

Source
Huse, Scott, 1983. The Collapse of Evolution. Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Book House, p. 15.

Response:
  • 1. The existence of the entire column at one spot is irrelevant. All of the parts of the geological column exist in many places, and there is more than enough overlap that the full column can be reconstructed from those parts.

    Breaks in the geological column at any spot are entirely consistent with an old earth history. The column is deposited only in sedimentary environments, where conditions favor the accumulation of sediments. Climatic and geological changes over time would be expected to change areas back and forth between sedimentary and erosional environments.

  • 2. There are several places around the world where strata from all geological eras do exist at a single spot -- for example, the Bonaparte Basin of Australia (Trendall et al. 1990, 382, 396) and the Williston Basin of North Dakota (Morton 2001).


Links:
Matson, Dave E., 1994. How good are those young-earth arguments?
http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/hovind/howgood-gc.html#G3


Morton, Glenn, 2001. The geologic column and its implications to the Flood.
http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/geocolumn/

or
http://home.entouch.net/dmd/geo.htm

References:
  • 1. Morton, Glenn, 2001. (see above)
  • 2. Trendall, A. F. et al., (ed.), 1990. Geology and Mineral Resources of Western Australia, Memoir 3. Geological Survey of Western Australia. State Printing Division, Perth.


Index to Creationist Claims, edited by Mark Isaak, Copyright © 2005
created 2001-3-31, modified 2004-9-8


Now, how should I respond to this? Bonaparte Basin, which in some debate I sloppily renamed Napoleon Basin ... (I am as much a pastry pontiff as ever Mark Shea, here is a Napoleon pastry, which may have led my associations astray):



Av User E23 on sv.wikipedia - E23, CC BY-SA 3.0, Länk

... as said, the Basin, named for Napoleon Bonaparte, but unlike the Swedish pastry after his last name, not his first, has an elasmosaurus above a trilobite.

Despite some coral between, which Tony Reed admitted at last could have arrived in bits and pieces and which I reasoned could also have been a place where the trilobites scurried under previous to Flood, I think the elasmosaur and the trilobite were contemporary, and that their placing has more to do with habitat level in sea while living than with respective "geological timescale".

Now, more on that when my debate with Tony Reed will have been edited to more argument by argument and less combox per combox.

However, the other one seems to have an "upper Ordovician Brachiopod" somewhat above a "lower Ordovician trilobite". Well, again we are dealing with sea critters, in Williston Basin too. And the Palaeocene leaves could be early post-Flood - or even pre-Flood, if triloobites and brachiopods, meaning mussles, were beside some wood.

I wonder how many oil drillers are NOT getting trilobites. If all oil wells are with trilobite content, petrol could be some aquatic beast's remnants, and therefore not necessarily from human or nephelim corpses. Even by a statistic chance.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Nanterre UL
Feast of Holy Rosary
7.X.2016

jeudi 22 septembre 2016

Radioactive Methods Revisited, Especially C-14


Creation vs. Evolution : 1) C14 Calibrations, comparing two preliminary ones, mine and Tas Walker's · 2) Radioactive Methods Revisited, Especially C-14 · 3) What Some of You are Thinking / Ce que certains de vous sont en train de penser · Great Bishop of Geneva! : 4) Carbon Dating of Turin Shroud and Hacking and Conventional vs Creationist Dating · Creation vs. Evolution : 5) A Fault in my Tables? A Plan for Improvement? · 6) Pre-Flood Biomass and More · 7) Advantages of a Shorter Carbon 14 Chronology · 8) Hasn't Carbon 14 been Confirmatively Calibrated for Ages Beyond Biblical Chronology? By Tree Rings? · HGL's F.B. writings : 9) Comparing with Gerardus D. Bouw Ph. D., Debating with Roger M Pearlman on Chronology · 10) Continuing with Pearlman, Especially on Göbekli Tepe and Dating of Ice Age

I wonder if it is "prof solitaire"* who has under cover contact with a priest who shall pray for me to reassess the essays** he is unable to disprove, or people here watching the exchange and praying for me to see something to make me reconsider.

Anyway, it is from "prof solitaire" that I got the second of my links.

Citing, I:
Bales/Stassen as per Talk Origins
http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/debate-age-of-earth.html#c14


from Bob Bales's opening statement
3. Radiocarbon balance in the atmosphere

Radiactive carbon-14 is formed in the atmosphere through the action of cosmic rays. The rate of formation depeneds on the cosmic-ray activity. The rate of decay (amount decayed in mass/unit time) depends on the amount present. Thus, the amount will increase until the decay rate balances the production rate. Equilibrium will be reached in approximately 30,000 years. Measurements of production and decay rates indicate that the amount has been increasing for some time. According to V.R. Switzer, a European conference reported two studies which showed the concentration has been increasing for at least 10,000 years ("Radioactive Dating and Low-level Counting, Science, 157:726, August 11, 1967). The paper mentions, without details, that this contradicts previous studies. However, there are other reports of increasing concentration which I have not seen: "Production of C-14 by Cosmic 8 Ray Neutrons," Richard E. Lingenfelter, Reviews of Geophysics, 1:51, February, 1963, and "Secular Variations in the Cosmic-Ray produced Carbon-14 in the Atmosphere and Their Interpretations," Hans E. Suess, Journal of Geophysical Research, 70:5947, December 1, 1965.

from Chris Stassen's rebuttal
3. Radiocarbon balance in the atmosphere

The [14]C/[12]C ratio depends on a number of factors including:

Its rate of production, influenced by both the strength of the earth's magnetic field, and the cosmic-ray proton flux generated by the Sun.
The amount of carbon in "reservoirs" in the Earth, which is strongly influenced by climatic conditions.

All of these factors vary; it is unjustified to assume that a non- uniform level means non-equilibrium. The concentration of [14]C in the atmosphere is calculated by performing [14]C dating on an object of known age (and calculating the difference between the dating age and the real age). The evidence indicates that it has been as high as 10% above its current value, and as low as 10% below its current value at various times in the past. It does not look like a process just now reaching equilibrium.

The "recent creation model" (with [14]C starting near but not at equilibrium) does not account for samples which give [14]C dates older than 10,000 years. Samples give ages to 50k years, which favors the "equilibrium, varying [14]C/[12]C ratio" model.

from Bob Bales's closing remarks
In carbon-14 dating, Chris seems to restrict the carbon-14 concentration to start near equilibrium and says that the creation model does not account for dates older than 10,000 years. But immediately after creation, there may very well have been little carbon 14. Material from that time, whenever it was, would date quite old, if the dating assumed near-equilibrium conditions.

Own comment:
In effect, I actually do believe, in order to defend a young earth, that C14 content at Creation and especially at Flood:

  • A, were very much lower than equilibrium
  • B, rose much more rapidly than with normal additions today in order to have since Flood reached equilibrium
  • C, and has in fact reached equilibrium.


Citing, II
Answers to Creationist Attacks on Carbon-14 Dating
on NCSE, spring 1982
https://ncse.com/cej/3/2/answers-to-creationist-attacks-carbon-14-dating


Question:
Creationists such as Cook (1966) claim that cosmic radiation is now forming C-14 in the atmosphere about one and one-third times faster than it is decaying. If we extrapolate backwards in time with the proper equations, we find that the earlier the historical period, the less C-14 the atmosphere had. If we extrapolate as far back as ten thousand years ago, we find the atmosphere would not have had any C-14 in it at all. If they are right, this means all C-14 ages greater than two or three thousand years need to be lowered drastically and that the earth can be no older than ten thousand years. How do you reply?

Answer:
Yes, Cook is right that C-14 is forming today faster than it's decaying. However, the amount of C-14 has not been rising steadily as Cook maintains; instead, it has fluctuated up and down over the past ten thousand years. How do we know this? From radiocarbon dates taken from bristlecone pines.

There are two ways of dating wood from bristlecone pines: one can count rings or one can radiocarbon-date the wood. Since the tree ring counts have reliably dated some specimens of wood all the way back to 6200 BC, one can check out the C-14 dates against the tree-ring-count dates. Admittedly, this old wood comes from trees that have been dead for hundreds of years, but you don't have to have an 8,200-year-old bristlecone pine tree alive today to validly determine that sort of date. It is easy to correlate the inner rings of a younger living tree with the outer rings of an older dead tree. The correlation is possible because, in the Southwest region of the United States, the widths of tree rings vary from year to year with the rainfall, and trees all over the Southwest have the same pattern of variations.

When experts compare the tree-ring dates with the C-14 dates, they find that radiocarbon ages before 1000 BC are really too young—not too old as Cook maintains. For example, pieces of wood that date at about 6200 BC by tree-ring counts date at only 5400 BC by regular C-14 dating and 3900 BC by Cook's creationist revision of C-14 dating (as we see in the article, "Dating, Relative and Absolute," in the Encyclopaedia Britannica). So, despite creationist claims, C-14 before three thousand years ago was decaying faster than it was being formed and C-14 dating errs on the side of making objects from before 1000 BC look too young, not too old.

Own comment
Two things:

  • On author of the piece and tree ring dating

    Chris Weber, one of the editors of Creation/Evolution, is a computer programmer and an amateur geologist. He has followed the creation-evolution controversy for over a decade. / Copyright 1982 by Christopher Gregory Weber

    I think he has missed a thing on two on tree ring dating. As a computer programmer and an amateur geologist, he may not be a specialist in tree rings.

    Neither am I, but I have seen some holes in it.

    For a series relevant to Europe, I have seen a bottleneck and a diagram showing how matches are for bottleneck. I would say, they are not exactly stringent in accepting matches. Reference unfortunately lost.

  • On Cook and still rising C-14 content.

    I have pretty conclusively disproven the "still rising" scenario.

    If it were, and if C-14 started out at a Flood 5000 years ago from a level of 1/64 of equilibrial level (assuming it were a single one), and assuming rise were thus limited to speeds of new formation seen today, we would either accept the half life it has and get very aberrant dates (El Alamein would date as Ghettysburg if we were 45% of equilibrial level right now and still rising and the 5730 years were both the true half life and accepted as such); or, other possibility, we would shorten the half life so as to fit datings with very well known historic dates. And in that case we would not be able to get a consistent half life. Older things would be datable correctly according to a longer half life, younger things by a shorter one.

    This I proved mathematically back here:

    New blog on the kid : Examinons une hypothèse qui se trouve contrefactuelle un peu de près
    from Wednesday, 28 October 2015, by Hans Georg Lundahl "at 05:26" (in some other time zone than mine)
    http://nov9blogg9.blogspot.com/2015/10/examinons-une-hypothese-qui-se-trouve.html


    The funny thing then is, I have since then seen this kind of inconsistency about half life (same or reverse, not sure which) about early C-14 datings from early dynastic and pre-dynastic Egypt. I would say (unless reverse to my last table on that link) that back then the C-14 level was lower than now and rising rather rapidly.

    If it had risen slowly, we would not have come up to equilibrial level yet.

    So, my scenario for a rising C-14 level is very much not Cooks, not a projection backwards from a level at presently perhaps rising.

    It is deduced from Biblical chronology and confirmed by early problems of C-14 with Egyptologists. It implies a rise more rapid than the now observed or equilibrially observable formation of new C-14. Which in turn implies a higher level of cosmic radiation, hence a level which could have given rise to both ice age and to a faster decay of "older" methods, like Uranium based or Potassium Argon.


And it is researching this second link, that I found the first one.

Whatever might be the reason for my coming across so much to refute, I hope it is useful for others.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Nanterre UL
St Thomas of Villanova
22.IX.2016

* See Carbone 14 et Franc-maçonnerie.

** See the series I usually search on my blog by searching this one as Fibonacci : Avec un peu d'aide de Fibonacci ... j'ai une table, presque correcte

lundi 12 septembre 2016

What Can the Altaic Flood Legend Teach about the Real Flood


Talk Origins has the very great kindness to present us a list of several Flood Legends around the world. Among these the Altaic one.

Altaic (central Asia):

Tengys (Sea) was once lord over the earth. Nama, a good man, lived during his rule with three sons, Sozun-uul, Sar-uul, and Balyks. Ülgen commanded Nama to build an ark (kerep), but Nama's sight was failing, so he left the building to his sons. The ark was built on a mountain, and from it were hung eight 80-fathom cables with which to gauge water depth. Nama entered the ark with his family and the various animals and birds which had been driven there by the rising waters. Seven days later, the cables gave way from the earth, showing that the flood had risen 80 fathoms. Seven days later, Nama told his eldest son to open the window and look around, and the son saw only the summits of mountains. His father ordered him to look again later, and he saw only water and sky. At last the ark stopped in a group of eight mountains. On successive days, Nama released a raven, a crow, and a rook, none of which returned. On the fourth day, he sent out a dove, which returned with a birch twig and told why the other birds hadn't returned; they had found carcasses of a deer, dog, and horse respectively, and had stayed to feed on them. In anger, Nama cursed them to behave thus to the end of the world. When Nama became very old, his wife exhorted him to kill all the men and animals he had saved so that they, transferred to the other world, would be under his power. Nama didn't know what to do. Sozun-uul, who didn't dare to oppose his mother openly, told his father a story about seeing a blue-black cow devouring a human so only the legs were visible. Nama understood the fable and cleft his wife in two with his sword. Finally, Nama went to heaven, taking with him Sozun-uul and changing him into a constellation of five stars. [Holmberg, pp. 364-365]


Tengys (Sea) was once lord over the earth. Nama, a good man, lived during his rule with three sons, Sozun-uul, Sar-uul, and Balyks.

A good man with three sons closely matches the Biblical story.

Someone (probably a bad man) being ruler of all the world is possible.

Ülgen commanded Nama to build an ark (kerep), but Nama's sight was failing, so he left the building to his sons.

I don't know the rest of the stories about Ülgen, so I can't say how closely he matches the Biblical and real God.

However, when St Thomas Aquinas listed the degrees of false religion, he considered that of the "Tartars" as better than idolatry, though less good than islam (and I suppose that is how he would have viewed Amerindians too). And in some cases an idolatrous name for a false god has been reused by Christians of same language (Jumala, Finnish, Dievas, Lithuanian). I am not sure whether this is the case with Ülgün or not.

Nama's sight failing is probably false, extrapolation of post-Flood very shortened longevity.

The ark was built on a mountain, and from it were hung eight 80-fathom cables with which to gauge water depth. Nama entered the ark with his family and the various animals and birds which had been driven there by the rising waters. Seven days later, the cables gave way from the earth, showing that the flood had risen 80 fathoms.

This part is interesting.

In the Bible we have the direction "fifteen cubits above the highest mountains".

Changing 15 cubits to 80 fathoms is usually called exaggeration. But it is interesting that the legend states that the Ark was built on a mountain - and that ropes were in any shape way or form there to determine how much water had risen.

This is probably true about the real flood and the "fifteen cubits above the highest mountains" part.

Seven days later, Nama told his eldest son to open the window and look around, and the son saw only the summits of mountains. His father ordered him to look again later, and he saw only water and sky. At last the ark stopped in a group of eight mountains. On successive days, Nama released a raven, a crow, and a rook, none of which returned. On the fourth day, he sent out a dove, which returned with a birch twig and told why the other birds hadn't returned; they had found carcasses of a deer, dog, and horse respectively, and had stayed to feed on them.

Timescale of Flood radically shortened. Dove talks - and this is, though false per se, prophetic of when a dove and a voice from heaven were there in the Baptism of Christ.

In anger, Nama cursed them to behave thus to the end of the world.

Noah pronouncing a curse is in the Bible too. Probably Mongols descend from Ham and were not willing to tell real story, even if not descending from Chanaan (or one could say Mongols like Japanese do descend from Hittites, or from one Hittite, at least in their élite, which I believe to be correct on other grounds*). One could even argue "Nama" could be a portmanteau word for "Noah" and "Ham".

When Nama became very old, his wife exhorted him to kill all the men and animals he had saved so that they, transferred to the other world, would be under his power. Nama didn't know what to do. Sozun-uul, who didn't dare to oppose his mother openly, told his father a story about seeing a blue-black cow devouring a human so only the legs were visible. Nama understood the fable and cleft his wife in two with his sword. Finally, Nama went to heaven, taking with him Sozun-uul and changing him into a constellation of five stars.

This is of course rather far from anything in the Bible - except some wives giving their husbands bad council. And husbands refusing to hear them. It probably owes some details to episodes in the wilder and bloodier times of this people.

There could even be some kind of reference to Nimrod trying to reach Heaven through the top of a tower. "Nama" would even have an echo from first syllable of Nimrod or first two of Enmerker.

Apart from that, Tengys could also be a combined reference to Nimrod or Tubal Cain as post- and pre-Flood tyrants along with the great waters of the Flood itself.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Nanterre UL
Blessed Name of Mary
12.IX.2016

* Heth was first born of Chanaan. Probably the direct issue of him in Turkey were speakers of Hattic, not of Hittite, but speakers of Hittite eventually identified with them (hence their name) and so could have been considering themselves as Chanaaneans too. The reference to Japanese, possibly also Mongol one, descending from one, is about Aeneas as son of Venus and about Amaterasu as great-grand-mother of Emperor Jimmu. I suppose the goddesses as mothers originally referred to priestesses or rather one priestess, Puduhepa serving both a sungoddess (like Amaterasu) in one rite and a love goddess (like Venus) in a slightly different one and believing herself they were the same. She became a Hittite Empress. As Jimmu was not yet arrived in Japan, only his descendants there became Tennos, the road of that kind of dynasty would have been able to go through Mongol or Altaic regions before reaching Japan. And if so, and if historic Hittites retained (unknown to archaeology) or regained some knowledge of descent from Chanaan, one can see why "curse of Ham" would not have been a very favourite topic, while not being totally ignored either.

Nama cursing scavengers to behave badly is of course also an echo of Adam, through sin, not through pronouncing a curse, doing so very much earlier than Noah.

jeudi 16 juillet 2015

What was Geological Competence Back Then? Referring to Terry Mortensen

I will cite as a little table seven theses with examples, extracted from a much longer article. The theses deal with Geological Competence in 1820's and 1830's, when the modern Geology was being formed. A little before it provoked Darwinism.

Principle (1-7) Examples named
 
(1) A competent geologist need not be a member of the Geological Society of London.  William Smith, John Farey, Robert Bakewell, estimated one third of competent geologists 1834–1837 (Devonian controversy).
 
(2) Being well-travelled, especially internationally, or having firsthand knowledge of the geology and geography of an area was not essential to write competently on geology.  John Macculloch, George Fairholme and Lyell in relation to Niagara falls, James Hutton, Georges Cuvier.
 
(3) A person need not be gainfully employed as a geologist in order to be a competent geologist in the 1820s and 1830s.  Murchison, part time De la Beche, part time Lyell, George P. Scrope, George Greenough who was the first president of the Geological Society.
 
(4) A competent geologist in the early nineteenth century did not necessarily have a good knowledge of conchology.  William Smith, "the Father of English Geology", initially Lyell
 
(5) A person did not need to publish geological articles in scientific journals in order to be regarded as a competent geologist.  William Smith, again
 
(6) A competent geologist’s interpretations of the rocks were not unaffected by non-scientific considerations.  Buckland as well as Lyell [acc to respectively Nicholaas Rupke and Rudwick]
 
(7) To be considered geologically competent (even highly so) a person did not need to agree with the dominant theory.  Lyell, William Smith.


My own conclusion, before linking to my source, is that many criteria of competence have been developed lately as pilpuls for exclusion.

As a bonus, I will cite as source for Silmarillion's geology, William Smith. Tolkien gave an Old Earth scenario, which as a Catholic he probably combined with sth like gap theory. He set the end of LotR at Ussher's date for Creation - to indicate, I suppose that all of his works are supposed to refer to a past creation, before the Earth was, as in Genesis 1:2 empty and void. Of course, in his artistic imagination. What is notable about it is that there are several supernatural catastrophes in it. The felling of the two lanterns, as well as some other early ones, up to killing of two trees, the cataclysm end of I age which drowned Beleriand, the cataclysm end of II age which drowned Numenor (alias Atlantis, Tolkien's version differring from that of Cayce), and the upheaval of Mount Doom at end of III age. Now, with this in mind, take a look at these paragraphs, illustrating principle 7:

(7) To be considered geologically competent (even highly so) a person did not need to agree with the dominant theory.

This is obvious, but it is worth stating. Lyell was considered geologically competent when his extreme uniformitarian theory was presented in opposition to the mainstream view of the catastrophists. Therefore, a scriptural geologist could not legitimately be considered geologically incompetent simply because he opposed the old-earth interpretations of the rocks. In the 1820s and 1830s it would have been inconsistent to say that in order to be considered as geologically competent a person could not question the time and natural processes responsible for the production of the whole geological record (as the scriptural geologists did), when catastrophists and uniformitarians were debating over the time and processes involved in producing particular formations or strata within that record. This is especially seen in the case of William Smith, who unlike any other catastrophists and the uniformitarians believed in multiple supernatural catastrophes, each followed by supernatural creation.293 Yet in 1829 Phillips wrote of him,

‘Mr Smith is no theorist in the ordinary sense of the word. His whole life has been spent in practical researches, to prove the truth, and extend the benefit, of those general laws of structure which he was the first to promulgate in England. Besides discovering, at nearly the same period as Werner, the principle of the arrangement of secondary strata, he added the important doctrine, that organic fossils are distributed in the earth according to regular laws, and may be employed to discriminate and identify the rocks. Werner and Smith are, therefore, the leaders of the modern school of geology, and whilst every fresh investigation illustrates the truth of their general principles, their names will be honoured with increasing respect, though every “theory” should be forgotten’.


OK - can we take it that JRRT in his capacity of geology fan and "not quite literal Genesis" creationist (though he tried to bring it closish), was a student of William Smith?

I would not be surprised if it were the case.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Nanterre UL
Our Lady of Carmel
16-VII-2015

Source:

British scriptural geologists in the first half of the nineteenth century: part 1
Historical setting
by Terry Mortenson
http://creation.com/british-scriptural-geologists-in-the-first-half-of-the-nineteenth-century-part-1


Appendix:

I cite "verdict" (rather "mendacidict", actually, if you know what the Latin terms mean, but that is another matter) of Kitzmiller vs Dover trial:*

Expert testimony reveals that since the scientific revolution of the 16th and 17th centuries, science has been limited to the search for natural causes to explain natural phenomena. (9:19-22 (Haught); 5:25-29 (Pennock); 1:62 (Miller)). This revolution entailed the rejection of the appeal to authority, and by extension, revelation, in favor of empirical evidence. (5:28 (Pennock)). Since that time period, science has been a discipline in which testability, rather than any ecclesiastical authority or philosophical coherence, has been the measure of a scientific idea's worth. (9:21-22 (Haught ); 1:63 (Miller)). In deliberately omitting theological or "ultimate" explanations for the existence or characteristics of the natural world, science does not consider issues of "meaning" and "purpose" in the world. (9:21 (Haught); 1:64, 87 (Miller)). While supernatural explanations may be important and have merit, they are not part of science. (3:103 (Miller); 9:19-20 (Haught)). This self-imposed convention of science, which limits inquiry to testable, natural explanations about the natural world, is referred to by philosophers as "methodological naturalism" and is sometimes known as the scientific method. (5:23, 29-30 (Pennock)). Methodological naturalism is a "ground rule" of science today which requires scientists to seek explanations in the world around us based upon what we can observe, test, replicate, and verify. (1:59-64, 2:41-43 (Miller); 5:8, 23-30 (Pennock)).


This "expert testimony" was obviously as incompetent in history as is usually the case with Natural Scientists (especially non-creationists) who unwarily stumble into that area.

William Smith, as cited above, very clearly did NOT consider that "science has been limited to the search for natural causes to explain natural phenomena" in the early 19th C, and much less than so since the 17th C.

What is perhaps rather the case is that those 17th C. scientists who are read with appreciation now by the "scientific community" (that sect! or most of them at least) are the ones who do so restrict themselves, except perhaps as to easily isolated aspects of their work.

So, what did Miller say on the purpose?**

Q. Could you please read for the record the highlighted passage?

A. Be glad to. This is the opening of the third section of this book, and it opens basically by defining science. And it says, and I quote, Science is a particular way of knowing about the world. In science, explanations are restricted to those that can be inferred from confirmable data, the results obtained through observations and experiments that can be substantiated by other scientists. Anything that can be observed or measured is amenable to scientific investigation. Explanations that cannot be based on empirical evidence are not part of science.

Q. Do you agree with that statement?

A. I certainly do.

Q. How long have these rules of science been in effect?

A. I'm tempted to say forever, but I think certainly for the last 200 years of contemporary science, the notion that science -- in other words, all of the 19th Century and all of the 20th Century and now into the 21st -- the notion that science can only deal with empirical data, what we can see, what we can observe, and what we can measure, has been part of the common understanding of science in all people in all cultures.

Q. So science doesn't -- these rules don't just apply in the United States?

A. No, sir, they don't. I think science might be the closest thing we have on this planet to a universal culture, and these rules apply everywhere.

Q. Why are these rules important?

A. These rules are important because if you don't have these rules, you don't have science. The entire -- human beings are fallible, and I mentioned that science is a human activity. It's a systematic search for natural explanations for natural phenomena.

And if you invoke a non-natural cause, a spirit force or something like that in your research and I decide to test it, I have no way to test it. I can't order that from a biological supply house, I can't grow it in my laboratory. And that means that your explanations in that respect, even if they were correct, were not something I could test or replicate, and therefore they really wouldn't be part of science.

Q. So supernatural causation is not considered part of science?

A. Yeah. I hesitate to beg the patience of the Court with this, but being a Boston Red Sox fan, I can't resist it. One might say, for example, that the reason the Boston Red Sox were able to come back from three games down against the New York Yankees was because God was tired of George Steinbrenner and wanted to see the Red Sox win.

In my part of the country, you'd be surprised how many people think that's a perfectly reasonable explanation for what happened last year. And you know what, it might be true, but it certainly is not science, it's not scientific, and it's certainly not something we contest. So, yes, those rules certainly apply.


I think Miller was foresworn, unless he simply was unaware of William Smith, who wrote later than 200 years before the trial, and therefore broke this statement of "universal scientific culture". Indeed, I think Miller got this idea of an universal scientific culture from 20th C. Communists more than from an objective study of what 19th C. scientists actually said and wrote.

His example of how not to include a supernatural explanation in science is very ill chosen.

Whether God was tired of George Steinbrenner or not is not a scientific question, not because it involves God, but because it deals with one particular event.

No one can have scientific certitude of what I ate for yesterday's breakfast, and that has nothing to do with yesterday's breakfast being a miracle in the usual sense, but simply with the fact that breakfasts vary.

One man can eat bacon and egg, one man can eat a bakery sweet, one man can eat toast ... in my case, as I am homeless in France, bakery sweets is most likely most breakfasts, but nevertheless other possibilities cannot à priori be excluded. Plus one can eat for breakfast what one could have eaten for a larger meal the day before. Therefore, some particular person's breakfast on a particular date is not a scientific question (except when dead people are dissected). And this is also true on why Providence favoured such and such a team win - what if the real reason was someone in Red Sox was tired of life, and needed a girl friend and got one he impressed by those three wins of the Red Sox? We cannot know, there are so many other single person factors to be considered by God that we cannot know which of them was decisive.

Precisely as with breakfast menues there are so many possibilities, including no solid at all, that one can have, if any, only historic certainty of yesterday's breakfast.

What one can say with scientific certainty about teams winning, is : there is no known mechanism to scientifically guarantee one team wins, since any mechanism used by one team can also be used by the other, therefore, even naturally speaking, there is always room for Providence to decide, even without miracles.

God being a supernatural explanation is therefore NOT the reason why "God was tired of George Steinbrenner" is not a valid scientific explanation for Red Sox winning.

Miller was as bad on philosophy of science as on its history.

Other reason given by Miller, one cannot order a spiritual force for the lab and test it. Well, duh, aren't there a lot of things in the universe or history of life on earth which for exact same reason are not science, where even what you say cannot be tested. It could at the most be tested by parallel. And for spirits conducting matter, you have your own soul deciding what letters your pen or keyboard writes. That is as much a parallel as "stone on string" (a bad parallel! so it is more of a parallel than stone on string) for Newtonian explanation of two body problems in celestial mechanics.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Nanterre UL
later on
Our Lady of Carmel
16-VII-2015

* Whether ID is science?
http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/dover/kitzmiller_v_dover_decision2.html#p121


** Kitzmiller v. Dover Area School District
Trial transcript: Day 1 (September 26), AM Session, Part 1
http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/dover/day1am.html

lundi 16 juin 2014

Giving Tower of Babel a Fair Hearing

Back in 1996, December, when I was employed as a school teacher in Sysslebäck and demoted from usual lessons due to discipline problems, before I grew a beard, Talk Origins accepted as Post of the Month one post by Gail Davis.

Godless Linguistics!
Post of the Month: December 1996
Gail Davis
http://www.talkorigins.org/origins/postmonth/dec96.html


It is tongue in cheek. It gives linguistic evolution as a parallel for evolution in the biological sense. Since then two things have happened: the argument has become somewhat of a standard for internet atheist debaters and Talk Origins has not given another linguistic post ever status of post of the month, and I have looked up until 2013. I even found Aron-Ra's formalistic approach on "ape to man evolution" in the process of looking. But not one single other post on linguistic evolution on the post of the month. Nor on site map. Nor on ... yes, there were in fact 3 posts in the index of creationist claims dealing with linguistics.

Index to Creationist Claims
edited by Mark Isaak
Copyright © 2006
[Last update: 5 Nov 2006]
CG: Miscellaneous Anti-Evolution
CG100: Linguistics
http://www.talkorigins.org/indexcc/list.html#CG100


  • CG100: Linguistics
    • CG101. Chinese glyph for "ark" is literally "8 mouths."
    • CG110. The first known languages are highly complex.
    • CG111. Why are languages getting less complex?


    Of these the first is not very related to the subject. I will look at the other two before going back to that old PotM.

  • Claim CG110:

    The first known human languages were already very complex. Languages do not show the evolutionary progression we would expect if humans evolved gradually.

    • Source:

      Skjaerlund, David, n.d. Creationism explains human diversity.
      http://www.forerunner.com/forerunner/X0722_Creationism_explains.html


    • Response:

      • 1. The first known languages were written languages (else they would not be known). Since most cultures in the world have had no written language, and most people have been illiterate even where written language existed, written language is a poor metric to use to measure language in general. Language had been developing for an unknown period of time before written language evolved.

      • 2. The earliest known writing is simpler than written languages today. There are very simple, nonlinguistic precursors (no grammar) to cuneiform writing (Coulmas 1989).


  • Claim CG111:

    If current languages evolved gradually from primitive grunts or noises, earliest languages should be the simplest. But ancient languages such as Latin and Vedic Sanskrit are more complex than modern languages in terms of cases, genders, voices, verb forms, etc.



Responding ...
...to their responses
CG 110 resp. 1. The first known languages were written languages (else they would not be known). Since most cultures in the world have had no written language, and most people have been illiterate even where written language existed, written language is a poor metric to use to measure language in general. Language had been developing for an unknown period of time before written language evolved.

Maybe so. But it is the only "metric" we have got.

It is also only very poor if you assume that unwritten happenings cover much longer time before than written history after writing started. But then you could claim it makes it an uncertain metric.

But it is the only metric we have for complexity of past languages.

We have no tape recordings of Cro Magnon man to test if they spoke Biblical Hebrew or Aramaic, an immediate post-Babel language, a known language group's oldest form, or a rudimentary language. In absense if direct evidence, we can rule out rudimentary language since it has never been observed.

resp 2. The earliest known writing is simpler than written languages today. There are very simple, nonlinguistic precursors (no grammar) to cuneiform writing (Coulmas 1989).

Sure. Pure pictograms are not very informative either of the phonemes involved in possible case endings or of the categories that these represent.

So they give us an imperfect rendering of speech, but that does not in the least prove that the speech itself was imperfect.

CG 111 resp. 1. Languages are not becoming less complex overall. They may be simpler in some ways (such as verb endings) but are more complex in others (such as syntax and vocabulary) (Teegarden 2002).

They are so by intelligent restructuring of grammatical strategies. In other words by intelligent design.

And the over all complexity of expression range stays the same.

Or just perhaps devolves a bit. Is it still possible in English to say "Helms too they choose" or not? "They chose helmets too" is less emphatic. I know the point was under debate.

resp. 2. Evolution is not necessarily a uniform progression from simple to complex. Evolution towards simplicity is consistent with both biological and linguistic evolution.

But the point of the countered creationist claim is that an evolution towards linguistic simplicity cannot - on evolutionist views - have started until one first had a linguistic complexity that had somehow evovled from simplicity. Here are the two claims again, and they are closely related:

CG 110
The first known human languages were already very complex. Languages do not show the evolutionary progression we would expect if humans evolved gradually.
CG 111
If current languages evolved gradually from primitive grunts or noises, earliest languages should be the simplest. But ancient languages such as Latin and Vedic Sanskrit are more complex than modern languages in terms of cases, genders, voices, verb forms, etc.
Summing them up
Birds have no grammar in their songs - at least not grammar in a proper linguistic sense. Only man has such. No transitional state between animal and human grammar has been observed.

We do not have the grammar of Pal Ul Don with 400 words lacking pronouns and tenses totally.

Or rather, we do have precisely that grammar - but it was constructed by a man knowing unless I am mistaken both German and English, plus perhaps some Swahili, all of which do have pronouns and do have tenses. What we do not have is a real population using* it without* any further complexity* of grammar.

Similarily Pidgins may lack grammatical features normally found in languages, but are not anywhere a real precursor to real languages. Chomsky has pretended that Creoles are developed from Pidgins, but McWhorter has refuted him on Atlantic English based Creoles stating that the discrepance from European model language grammars are not due to Pidginisation (with limited contact with model language) followed by Creolisation (when children are raised in a Pidgin that becomes a mother tongue), but because Castle slaves in English colonial Castles (in Thirteen Colonies or US they would be called Forts) when told to learn English only relexicalised their mother tongue (or several of them with similar grammars) and when told to teach English to slaves destined for Trans-Atlantic destinations (like St Kitts) only transmitted their mother tongues relexicalised with English vocabulary.*

So, even Pidgins have nowhere served as precursors - at least exclusive such - for Creoles. And Creoles are everywhere observed as having normal complexity.

There is no such thing as a transitional language between monkey communication and human speech. If evolution were true, there must have been, but none such is found, ever.


Now, before I go back to December 1996, Post of the Month, I will take a look at other linguistic resources mentioned. The links to feedback posts do make the point that language overall is not getting simpler, but - in Western Society I would myself add - morphology is. And I would add: with exceptions, like the new Conditional Tense-Mood.

I also skimmed over the book by Croft. Or what was available of it on preview on Amazon. Hypercorrection is in it described as a "mechanism" which pretty well sums up his confusion of concept between voluntary and purely accidental causes. So, back to PotM December 1996.

First comes a diatribe against rock music and its relation to crime - not meant to be taken seriously. Then comes the great parallel between "linguistics" and "evolutionism" ... no doubt meant to indicate that Evolution, including both Macroevolution and Abiogenesis, are as solidly scientific as English descending from Anglo-Saxon. Or perhaps just as solidly scientific as Anglo-Saxon descending from Proto-Germanic descending from Proto-Indo-European ... which is not solidly scientific. Anyway, here come its points, which I will first of all answer with a bit more seriousness than they deserve. Then I will give a hint of what happened after that PotM.

Our public schools have turned away from the source of Truth, to teach our children that our sacred English language has descended from other languages.

The sacred languages are three, and English is not one of them.

Holy Writ shows in the history of its translations that English has had a succession of states so separate as to be for practical puposes different languages. When King Alfred translated 50 psalms into Ænglisc the result was very different from King James or (to mention a better version with same numeration as King Alfred's) Douay Rheims.

Even the other two sacred languages than Hebrew, if not Hebrew itself, had clearly known other states than that in which they were on the Titulus. We have "Rex Iudaeorum" and not "Ioudaiosom". We also have "Basileus ton Ioudaion" and not - again - "Io-da-o-so" (presumable Linear B spelling for "Ioudaiosom").

We have a testimony that one people came from another people, directly, so that when we read in Scripture of peoples not enumerated among the seventy (or seventytwo) original descendants of Noah, we must assume they have come out of some of those originally enumerated among the seventy. Meaning also that language would descend from language.

The poor impressionable youngsters are taught AS A FACT that English words have certain "root words", even though this is only a theory.

The IE (Indo-European) root words as such are not a theory, but a fact. Father is the same word as pater in all probability.

What is only a theory is that all the common root words came from the same language and all the languages from it within the IE language family. Common origin is one of three possibilities of language similarities, the other two being adstrate and superstrate, or in less technical jargon and more understandable words, neighbourhood and common model.

What is also only a theory is that such and such was the form of the original root word in the theoretical IE proto-language. The one for "pater" and "father" has been given both as "p@taar" and as "p@têr" and as "pχtehr" (presumed pronunciation of "pH2teH1r") depending on who does the reconstruction.

The FACT is, God Almighty created all languages complete when he confused mankind's original language as punishment for our transgression at the tower of Babel.

The fact is that God almighty did so with seventy or seventy two languages at Babel. Since we have lots of more languages and only 32 large language families, we are left to assume that the 32 language families are not all from only one source after Babel, but unless 40 just vanished, at least some of the 32 must be mergers - or incomplete mergers by adstrate, i e neighbourhood - between diverse Babelic languages. And we are also left to assume lots of splits have occurred.

But the atheist/linguists don't want this mentioned in public settings, because it goes against their FAITH, and forces them to face their own accountability.

What neither Atheists in general nor Gail Davis in particular wants mentioned is that Tower of Babel remains an entirely possible scenario. It does not contradict any clear linguistic fact, such as "pater" and "father" being the same word. Of course, Gail Davis just might have written his piece for that precise motive.

So they have BANNED the teaching of Babelism, because they are afraid that it might expose the weakness of their own linguistic ideas. Is this fair? I don't think so. It goes against all that America stands for.

Gail Davis does what he can to ban the Tower of Babel scenario from getting a fair hearing. By lampooning it. Or rather the kind of people he thinks would advocate it.

Therefore, join me in the campaign to have a balanced and fair treatment in public education. All English teachers should be required to include Babelism as a valid alternate theory to Linguisticism, whenever the origins of the English language is discussed.

When getting as far back as IE root language, stating the possibility it was never one single such, but several post-Babelic ones heavily influencing each other through neighbourhood or perhaps also influenced by some contructed lingua franca (like getting very basic morphological grammar from it, leaving aside their previous different grammars, or taking over many words for family members and some but not all for body parts) would be as fair to mention as mentioning a language spoken by the Kurgan people in a time according to modern theories pre-dating the Flood or maybe even Creation.

Oh, of course we can expect opposition from the entrenched vested interests.

Like those that Gail Davis either represents or by sheer thoughtlessness happens to defend.

They will point to certain similarities (i.e. "mother", "madre", "mater") as evidence of the relatedness of various languages.

That Spanish came from Latin is not against the Faith, nor against any part of the evidence. Whether Germanic and Latin came from an earlier same language by a split or converged by incomplete merging from previously less related languages (taking over the "mater" word from the lingua franca if there was such a one) is less certain.

We do know Germans and Romans descend from different sons or grandsons of Japheth who is the relevant son of Noah for Europe (though not solely so for all the IE speaking lands).

One can have taken over the language of the other or both can have exchanged words and taken over such from Nesili (Hittite - as opposed to Hattili/Hattic, which seems to be a Fenno-Ugrian one as clearly as the case would be for Sumerian, if not for Etruscan).

But this is a complete misinterpretation of the evidence. Clearly it is more economical for God to use similar phonic structures to designate similar meanings.

Here the lampooning is more directed at Biological Evolution. Linguistic evolution is only interesting to Gail Davis as a parallel to Biological one.

Of course, God does use similar structures over different kinds for similar purposes. Whether donkeys and horses were originally same kind or not, whether sheep and goats were originally same kind or not, sheep and horses weren't. But God gave both four legs and similar "toenails" and "fingernails" - to cite what structure in man is supposed to be originally same as hooves and cleft hooves.

He also probably used similar genetic codes for achieving the results.

The counterpart in what God did at Babel would be that God gave all languages more or less the same grammatical categories - even if he sometimes exchanged the means for expressing them.

If He meant certain languages to form families, He would have given them some initial similarities in vocabulary too. With a neat phonetic comfort distance between their versions, so as to suggest a demoted borrowing, once the peoples start to get in touch.

Supposing for instance that Germanic soundshift was never an event, but that Germanic represents a Phrygian state of sounds, with a de-satemisation (tch > k, dj > g) making it an overall Centum language, the "b" in "beru" could have been taken over as "φ" in "φερω" - or the reverse - because this was a difference the languages of Lud (ancestor of Lydians and Phrygians) and Javan (ancestor of at least Ionian Greeks) had in the original common glosses.

Therefore, the existence of such similarities PROVES that the various languages must have had the same author.

Logic. A similarity proves common origin. Common author, common ancestor, common model, common neighbourhood are all valid options.

The sentence is of course meant to lampoon the argument about similarities that even evolution believers do not put down to common ancestry (like caffeine in both Cammelia Sinensis and Coffea Coffea or echolocation in dolphins and bats) being proof of a common designer.

Second, a language is a complex thing. The odds that some first speaker could randomly string together a complex series of sounds, and then multiply this by the odds that someone else would UNDERSTAND him, and the probability could be calculated to be less than 1 in 10500. That's a one with five hundred zeroes. A statistical impossibility. Obviously, the first language must have a designer: God.

So far linguistics has not answered that one. I have seen a few attempts. One pretty funny such, which I saw in a science book of anthropology in Austria (probably written by someone close to Nazism**, same book says "Aryans" became a beautiful people by selection for beauty) indicated that the first word and phoneme was "φ" as in bilabial f. It meant fire. This is because the phoneme bilabial f is phonetically identic to the sound you make when blowing embers into flames. Man invented fire and then invented language to talk about fire. The sound "φ" was immediately understood as referring to fire. But getting from there to a language ...

Seriously, no evolutionist scenario beats God giving a ready made language to Adam and inviting him to fill in terminological gaps, in this case the names of the kinds of animal.

This is of course an entirely different question than that of why languages do change. And sometimes crossing boundaries into becoming new languages (I have argued elsewhere that this does at least sometimes, as for French adn English, as compared to Latin and West-Saxon, involve crossing boundaries and inventing things like new correspondences between sounds and letters).

Third, there is NO evidence that transitional languages ever existed. What use is half a language? A noun without verbs conveys no meaning!

Indeed, the very point that language does not evolve from brute systems of communication.

Sure, there is middle and old- English. But these are ENGLISH! A complete nontransitional language.

None of these is transitional between bird song and human language, that is for sure.

Obviously Early Middle English (or Old English) is transitional between Old English (or Anglo-Saxon) and Late Middle English (or Middle English).

Chomsky has argued that the (Late) Middle English of Chaucer and Modern English are very much the same language with only minor adjustments.

The point is, there was a transition. The West Saxon model of writing the native speech was lost. The Chaucerian one (which involved adaptations to French spelling, as when "hyll" was respelled "hull" before being respelled "hill" after delabialisation - sorry Chaucer if you already spelled "hill" but whatever you did pronounce with the labial front high vowel you did spell "u", as in French***) was not yet invented and universally accepted. And Orrmulum was written.

We do not deny that micro-linguistics can happen, but this process can create only DIALECTS. There is NO EVIDENCE that a series of random micro-linguistic events can create a WHOLE NEW LANGUAGE.

This is obviously a lmampooning of variation within kinds.

A linguist would not call English a whole new language. He would call it a Germanic dialect. It is as obviously a dialect of same root as Dutch, Frisonic and High German as Aeolic is of same root as Attic.

But the fault of the comparison is that all human languages are in a sense dialects of one language.

All human languages have the same basic grammatic functions. All have same basic semantic distinctions. No two are "similar and dissimilar" like elephant and whale. All pairs have such compatibility of functions as between Great Dane and Chihuahua. Does not make them immediately comrpehensible to each other. It is more comparable to a kind forming band species than to a kind forming just variants all directly interbreeedable.

I'll believe in Macro-linguistics when I see a video tape of a child growing up in an Eskimo village suddenly become fluent in Armenian!

Eskimo - or rather Inuit or Greenlandic - does have the same basic grammar as Armenian.

You only need lots of translations between not just words but also the structures expressing the functions before a man with Inuit mother tongue can be fluent in Armenian.

That is not comparable to the biological presumed example that all land animals have some kind of expression of original five phalangs, because you find them both in frogs and in man. But not in horses or goats, nor in sheep and donkeys.

Obviously Gail Davis is not at all interested in linguistics for its own sake, just as a parallel to Biologic Evolution.

It takes A LOT MORE FAITH to believe in atheistic linguisticism than the truth of Babelism.

Babel was the original diversity of languages.

It could also have originated non-mirculously. We have no record of that, but we have a record of the Tower of Babel.

It is rather God giving Adam a complete language where the Christian scenario is immediately much more comprehensible than the atheist one. But there the atheist one is not linguistics as the word is commonly understood.

Not even reconstructing a common parent language for all 32 large language families would come close to giving us rudimentary languages.

If the so constructed model of a proto-human-language completely lacked the conditional function, neither conjunctions like "if" and "then" nor doubling of the word order for question clauses, that would not mean the proto-human-language the model is meant to construct lacked it any more than the lack of a word for "head" or a word for "hand" in actual proto-IE means that if that language existed it lacked a word for "head" and lacked a word for "hand". It would only mean that the model is incomplete in reconstructing.

So join me in the crusade: Babelism must be included in the public school English curriculum.

There are only two theories which explain the origin of our language: Babelism and Linguisticism. Shouldn't they BOTH be given a fair hearing?

Did you even dream there would come a Creationist with a serious answer to all you said?

Here I am.

What happened after the piece was written?

Obviously, Talk Origins did not do very well in answering linguistic questions. No post on linguistics ever again made it to post of the month.

But there is another and sadder side. The stance taken by Gail Davis, that linguistics is a valid refutation of Creationism, has been taken up again and again. I have been confronted to it twice. Once back before I left Malmö (i e between 2001 and 2004) on Netscape Boards by one dhux. Once much more recently by one Cushla Geary. I will link to both confrontations below. And they are as vociferous as they are nullities in linguistic knowledge.*

Hans Georg Lundahl
Nanterre University Library
Sts Aureus and Justina
of Mayence, killed by Huns
16 / VI / 2014

* The spell check is amusing: "using" gives "usine", "without" gives "Erfurt", "complexity" gives - somewhat more appropriately - "complexité" as well as "vocabulary" giving "vocabulaire". And "grammar" gives "grammage", whatever that is. Not "grammaire" even. And "knockdown" suggested for "knowledge" is not bad either.

** Note that both Nazism and Austrofascism have ties to Austria. And look to Mussolini more or less as a model. This does not make the two the same. Of the two it is Nazism which is more likely to produce para-Evolutionist stuff.

*** It also involved respelling "c" as "ch" in words or word endings like "-ceastre" / "-chester". And "g" as "y" in "geard" / "yard". And so on, after French model. And as "y" was the consonant or the "ig"/"ige" endings, "y" was replaced by "u" for labial front high vowel, so also "ou" / "ow" replaced "u" for labial back high vowel. Meaning French was the model, West Saxon was ignored.

EARLIER CONFRONTATIONS

Assorted retorts : ...on Tower of Babel or language evolution
http://assortedretorts.blogspot.com/2008/11/tower-of-babel-or-language-evolution.html


HGL's F.B. writings : Attacked on "Evolution of Languages Disproves Tower of Babel" Subject Again
http://hglsfbwritings.blogspot.com/2014/05/attacked-on-evolution-of-languages.html


I forgot I had already had a confrontation last year on it, but that came back as I saw the short debate with Cushla Geary and her supporters featuring as post n° 8 in one of my series of monographic collections of posts.

On PHRYGIAN

Here are some texts of it, I took a look:
http://titus.uni-frankfurt.de/texte/etcs/phrygian/phryg.htm


To me "semon knoumanei" does not look like related to Germanic. I am glad the paragraph in the text above starts "Supposing for instance ...".

Supposing for instance that Germanic soundshift was never an event, but that Germanic represents a Phrygian state of sounds, with a de-satemisation (tch > k, dj > g) making it an overall Centum language, the "b" in "beru" could have been taken over as "φ" in "φερω" - or the reverse - because this was a difference the languages of Lud (ancestor of Lydians and Phrygians) and Javan (ancestor of at least Ionian Greeks) had in the original common glosses.


The scenario is as such plausible, as one of the ways in which a group of basically unrelated langages can have gotten related to each other, and so is the application perhaps of Lydian being one of them, but the application to a short connexion between Phrygian and Germanic is very much less so.

Inscription: 3 (Neo-Phrygian corpus on site)


(Br. 1,1, p.12)
Line: 1 ios ni semon knoumanei kakon a[d]daket
 ΙΟΣ ΝΙ ΣΕΜΟΝ ΚΝΟΥΜΑΝΕΙ ΚΑΚΟΝ Α[Δ]ΔΑΚΕΤ
Line: 2 [deOs ke zemelOs k]/e
 [ΔΕΩΣ ΚΕ ΖΕΜΕΛΩΣ Κ]/Ε
Line: 3 tie tit tetikmenos eitou
 ΤΙΕ ΤΙΤ ΤΕΤΙΚΜΕΝΟΣ ΕΙΤΟΥ


Between Latin and Germanic the number of shared words by far exceeds the total number of words in the Old Phrygian, Mysian and Neo-Phrygian corpus. And it is obviously possible that KAKON has exactly the same meaning as the neighbouring Greek word. For addaket I would guess a connexion to deiknymi and a meaning like "indicate, mean", but I am far from sure. And obviously word forms like tetikmenos or - if it be a genitive - genitives like eitou sound more Greek than anything else. Plus a clearer close connexion to deiknymi for tetikmenos (but it includes the T vs D connexion which is also typical for Germanic - as does the following word). TIT could be identic to the Germanic word THAT which is the same as -TUD in ISTUD.

vendredi 28 février 2014

The Abiogenesis Problem

1) Assorted retorts from yahoo boards and elsewhere : ... on Abiogenesis and Evolutionist Ideology, 2) Creation vs. Evolution : The Abiogenesis Problem, 3) Provisional Caveat to Previous

I recently said that abiogenesis is part of the same ideology as the one which says life evolved from simple cells to very complex organisms, like us or other mammals or like birds and fish and reptiles and the rest and which also says that earth "evolved" from part of the gas cloud that "evolved" into the sun. As well as is orbitting around it each year and rotating around itself each day. As well as that the gas cloud behind the solar system came from Big Bang.

How does abiogenesis tie together with Evolution properly speaking and Evolutionist theory of how Earth came to be?

You can imagine biological life had always been there, but in that case it would be more natural to assume it had always been there in roughly the same kind of complexity as we see now. To imagine it had always - very literally always without any beginning at all - been there in the form of very simple cells but somehow started to develop to life as we know it only some billions of years ago is frankly not very credible.

So, Evolution theory has hardly any case without Abiogenesis being at least possible. At the best life could be going in circles and the start of manycelled life in Cambrian explosion or before would only have been the start of a new cycle.

And if you believe the cosmogony and cosmology of Big Bang, then you cannot have anything like eternal life as it is, nor even life going eternally in cycles. So, to this set of ideas, which do form a whole, abiogenesis is somewhat crucial.

This can be formulated as "Evolution is baseless without a good theory of abiogenesis, which it does not have." This is listed as Creationist "Claim CB090"* in the Talkorigins list of refuted creationist claims. It gives for this particular formulation the source: Mastropaolo, J., 1998 (2 Nov.). Re: The evolutionist: liar, believer in miracles, king of criminals.*

I might have formulated it otherwise than Mastropaolo, like:

  • Evolution from a single cell presupposes a single cell did arise from non-living matter, and if that is impossible, evolution scenario cannot possibly be true.

    And adding

  • Earth arising purely naturally from Big Bang (via gas clouds forming solar system etc) presupposes that life later arose from non-living matter, and if that is impossible, Earth cannot have arisen after non-being without a creator before that either.


However, the Talkorigins site gives us Mastropaolo's formulation and pretends to refute it like this:

  • 1. The theory of evolution applies as long as life exists. How that life came to exist is not relevant to evolution. Claiming that evolution does not apply without a theory of abiogenesis makes as much sense as saying that umbrellas do not work without a theory of meteorology.

  • 2. Abiogenesis is a fact. Regardless of how you imagine it happened (note that creation is a theory of abiogenesis), it is a fact that there once was no life on earth and that now there is. Thus, even if evolution needs abiogenesis, it has it.


To which I answer:

  • 1. Umbrellas do not work without a theory of meteorology allowing for rain to exist. The theory need not be conscious, but a conscious theory that says "rain does not exist" or from which good logic could conclude "rain does not exist" is incompatible with umbrellas. The problem in the quip is that rain is observed and working umbrellas are observed, abiogenesis is not oberved and evolution from one celled mature organisms to life on a visible level is not observed "while it happens".

  • 2. Abiogenesis does not usually refer to life arising through a creator creating it, but in any context outside this quip it refers to life arising from exclusively non-living matter without any conscious intervention behind itself. And that is not a fact. Evolutionists do not have that. They may think they can prove that indirectly through the subsequent story being true (but I have shown elsewhere on this blog they not only cannot prove that but the opposite can be proven. Or they may think they can prove that from modern cosmological theories of how earth arose, but they cannot prove those either. They have, as far as I am concerned not even proven Heliocentrism is either a fact or likely to work without divine intervention.


This leads to their claims that abiogenesis functions and to the claims on our side it doesn't.

Complex organic molecules, such as the bases in RNA, are very fragile and unstable, except at low temperatures. They would not hold together long enough to serve as the first self-replicating proto-life.

Here I totally second the formulation given by Talkorigins (in Claim CB030) and extracted from Jerry Bergman and Harun Yahya.**

I will now give the four replies** with my replies to them:

I
Talkorigins
The source Bergman cites for the fragility of RNA bases (Levy and Miller 1998) disputes abiogenesis only at high temperatures, around 100 degrees Celsius. They also conclude, "At 0 degrees C, A, U, G, and T appear to be sufficiently stable (t1/2 greater than or equal to 106 yr) to be involved in a low-temperature origin of life." They also say that cytosine is unstable enough at 0 degrees Celsius (half life of 17,000 years) that it may not have been involved in the first genetic material. The discovery of a ribozyme without C-G bases shows that genetic material without cytosine is plausible (Reader and Joyce 2002).
HGL
But what about the chemicals like ammonia and similar that would have destroyed them?
II
Talkorigins (a)
If synthesis of nucleo-bases is catalyzed and hydrolysis is not, we expect the nucleo-bases to accumulate. Formamide, which can form under prebiotic conditions, has been found to catalyze the formation of nucleo-bases (Saladino et al. 2001; Saladino et al. 2003).
HGL
But what about the chemicals like ammonia and similar that would have destroyed them?
Talkorigins (b)
RNA degrades quickly today because there are enzymes (RNAses) to chew it up.
HGL
We concede that RNA would not have degraded quickly because of these enzymes in a pre-biotic scenario. But what about the chemicals like ammonia and similar that would have destroyed them?
Talkorigins (c)
Those enzymes would not have evolved if RNA degraded quickly on its own. If complex organic molecules were so fragile, life itself would be impossible.
HGL
We reply that they are so fragile and that life is possible by creation only, or (disconsidering other factors) in a steady state universe, but not by abiogenesis plus evolution.
Talkorigins (d)
In fact, life exists even in boiling temperatures or at very high acidity.
HGL
But not exposing RNA directly to it without protection.
III
Talkorigins
Life need not have begun with highly stable molecules. Eigen and Schuster developed a notion of chemical hypercycles, in which many chemical components coexist; each component of the reaction leads to other components, which eventually reform the original one (Eigen and Schuster 1977). Chemicals involved in such a cycle need not persist longer than the duration of the hypercycle itself.
HGL
Their isolation from other chemicals which would have led elsewhere than to next part of cycle would however need to persist as long as any series of hypercycles lasts.
IV
Talkorigins
Organic molecules may have grown in association with stabilizing templates, such as clay templates (Ertem and Ferris 1996), or parts of the hypercycles mentioned above.
HGL
Clay templates would not have given sufficient complexity. Plus we still have the problem of how the organic molecules are protected while growing - if such a thing happened at all before life as an ongoing concern (in which the molecules are adequately protected in the cases they survive).


I heard one theory that such molecules were likely protected by vesicles of lipids or proteines. Proteine vesicles presuppose life has formed already, since proteines are synthesised in living organisms. Lipid vesicles give us that same problem, except my opponent claimed that it had been shown that lipids could form with rocks acting as catalysts. This I had not previously heard, and my immediate source gave no source for it. It was actually a few turns later in the dialogue that he gave the links to Talkorigins on Abiogenesis.

None of them adressed the problem of lipids for cell membranes, even in the form of very simple vesicles.

However, Don Batten on CMI does adress it:***

Lipids (‘fats’) are essential for the formation of a cell membrane that contains the cell contents, as well as for other cell functions. The cell membrane, comprised of several different complex lipids, is an essential part of a free-living cell that can reproduce itself.

Lipids have much higher energy density than sugars or amino acids, so their formation in any chemical soup is a problem for origin of life scenarios (high energy compounds are thermodynamically much less likely to form than lower energy compounds).

The fatty acids that are the primary component of all cell membranes have been very difficult to produce, even assuming the absence of oxygen (a ‘reducing’ atmosphere). Even if such molecules were produced, ions such as magnesium and calcium, which are themselves necessary for life and have two charges per atom (++, i.e. divalent), would combine with the fatty acids, and precipitate them, making them unavailable.9 This process likewise hinders soap (essentially a fatty acid salt) from being useful for washing in hard water—the same precipitation reaction forms the ‘scum’.

Some popularisers of abiogenesis like to draw diagrams showing a simple hollow sphere of lipid (a ‘vesicle’) that can form under certain conditions in a test-tube. However, such a ‘membrane’ could never lead to a living cell because the cell needs to get things through the cell membrane, in both directions. ...

...

In the 1920s the idea that life began with soapy bubbles (fat globules) was popular (Oparin’s ‘coacervate’ hypothesis) but this pre-dated any knowledge of what life entailed in terms of DNA and protein synthesis, or what membranes have to do. The ideas were naïve in the extreme, but they still get an airing today in YouTube videos showing bubbles of lipid, even dividing, as if this were relevant to explaining the origin of life.


It irritates me that neither Niels Steigenga nor Don Batten have shown anything about a link as to under what conditions lipids form vesicles in test tubes. The little research I have been able to do on my own over wiki does not give any clue as to abiotic formation of lipids. So, since Don Batten links to a feedback article by J. Sarfati,° and since he links to a no longer existing article on NASA ... well, finally it links to (reserving surprise for those curious enough to read the footnote).

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Nanterre UL
Pope St Hilary
28-II-2014

* Claim CB090
http://www.talkorigins.org/indexcc/CB/CB090.html


It refers to:

Mastropaolo, J., 1998 (2 Nov.). Re: The evolutionist: liar, believer in miracles, king of criminals.
http://www.asa3.org/archive/evolution/199811/0040.html


** Claim CB030
http://www.talkorigins.org/indexcc/CB/CB030.html


It refers to:

Bergman, Jerry. 2000. Why abiogenesis is impossible. Creation Research Society Quarterly 36(4)
http://www.creationresearch.org/crsq/articles/36/36_4/abiogenesis.html


Yahya, Harun. 2003. The secrets of DNA
http://www.harunyahya.com/dna03.php


*** CMI, Origin of life
An explanation of what is needed for abiogenesis
by Don Batten
Published: 26 November 2013 (GMT+10)
First section after intro, Getting all the right ingredients, d. Lipids
http://creation.com/origin-of-life#lipids


Note 9 links to this reference:

Chadwick, A.V., Abiogenic Origin of Life: A Theory in Crisis, 2005;
origins.swau.edu/papers/life/chadwick/default.html


° CMI Feedback archive → Feedback 2001 Self-made cells? Of course not!
http://creation.com/self-made-cells-of-course-not


Sarfati cites in note 1) "The original paper is Dworkin, J., Deamer, D., Sandford, S., and Allamandola, L., Self-assembling amphiphilic molecules: Synthesis in simulated interstellar/precometary ices, Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences (USA) 98(3):815–819, 30 January 2001; see online overview." But the link under online overview is no longer functional. I also found it on the following page (also in note 2 by Sarfati):

News Release: 01-06AR NASA Scientists Find Clues That Life Began in Deep Space
http://www.nasa.gov/centers/ames/news/releases/2001/01_06AR.html


Here is what happens with the nonfunctional link (present not just on CMI but also on previous by NASA! "Further information about this research is available at"):

While trying to retrieve the URL: http://web99.arc.nasa.gov/~astrochm/vesicle.html

The following error was encountered:

Unable to determine IP address from host name for web99.arc.nasa.gov

The dnsserver returned:

Name Error: The domain name does not exist.

This means that:

The cache was not able to resolve the hostname presented in the URL.
Check if the address is correct.

Your cache administrator is webmaster.


The first substance mentioned on - as yet - functioning link by NASA is "Figure 1 and 2. Pyranene dye encapsulated in various sizes of vesicles made from a room temperature residue from the above described simulations." But Pyranene may be a typo for also mentioned encapsulated pyranine. Which is used to make hair blonde, and which is irritating (Reizend, XI) ... it is an organic compound, but if it were present in early atmosphere (no real knowledge as to how it forms) it would be likelier to destroy any budding proto-life than to be membranes for it. It is very clearly not a lipid.

Sarfati also linked to one other similarily non-existant page and to one which gave a 404 Error ("The page you're looking for isn't here") on its site./HGL

mardi 19 novembre 2013

What I think I have refuted

Three Meanings of Chronological Labels

In detail:1) How do Fossils Superpose?, 2) Searching for the Cretaceous Fauna (with appendix on Karoo, Beaufort), 3) What I think I have refuted, 4) Glenn Morton caught abusing words other people were taught as very small children

In debate or otherwise on Assorted Retorts: 1) ... on How Fossils Matter , 2) ... on Steno and Lifespan and Fossil Finds, 3) Geological Column NOT Palaeontolical [Censored by CMI-Creation-Station? Or just by the Library I am in?], 4) Same Debate Uncensored, One Step Further, 5) Continuing debate with Howard F on Geology / Palaeontology, 6) Howard F tries twice again ...

Here is my little enemy:

Problems with a Global Flood
Second Edition
by Mark Isaak
Copyright © 1998
part 7. Producing the Geological Record
http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/faq-noahs-ark.html#georecord


Here is his relevant argument:

How was the fossil record sorted in an order convenient for evolution? Ecological zonation, hydrodynamic sorting, and differential escape fail to explain:

  • the extremely good sorting observed. Why didn't at least one dinosaur make it to the high ground with the elephants?
  • the relative positions of plants and other non-motile life. (Yun, 1989, describes beautifully preserved algae from Late Precambrian sediments. Why don't any modern-looking plants appear that low in the geological column?)
  • why some groups of organisms, such as mollusks, are found in many geologic strata.
  • why organisms (such as brachiopods) which are very similar hydrodynamically (all nearly the same size, shape, and weight) are still perfectly sorted.
  • why extinct animals which lived in the same niches as present animals didn't survive as well. Why did no pterodons make it to high ground?
  • how coral reefs hundreds of feet thick and miles long were preserved intact with other fossils below them.
  • why small organisms dominate the lower strata, whereas fluid mechanics says they would sink slower and thus end up in upper strata.
  • why artifacts such as footprints and burrows are also sorted. [Crimes & Droser, 1992]
  • why no human artifacts are found except in the very uppermost strata. If, at the time of the Flood, the earth was overpopulated by people with technology for shipbuilding, why were none of their tools or buildings mixed with trilobite or dinosaur fossils?
  • why different parts of the same organisms are sorted together. Pollen and spores are found in association with the trunks, leaves, branches, and roots produced by the same plants [Stewart, 1983].
  • why ecological information is consistent within but not between layers. Fossil pollen is one of the more important indicators of different levels of strata. Each plant has different and distinct pollen, and, by telling which plants produced the fossil pollen, it is easy to see what the climate was like in different strata. Was the pollen hydraulically sorted by the flood water so that the climatic evidence is different for each layer?


But the Wikipedia List of Fossil sites does not warrant to take Fossils from different "time" labels as being in different layers of same rocks. Anywhere, or almost, on earth.

And I answer:

Many times over he assumes, as have Creationists assumed, that Cenozoic layers are higher up than Mesozoic or Palaeozoic. It is true for rocks classified as this or that without fossils, but it is not true for the fossil bearing rocks themselves.

I get to the details (instead of just saying after many of them "answered already"):

  • 1) the extremely good sorting observed. Why didn't at least one dinosaur make it to the high ground with the elephants?

    • Unnecessary assumption that fossils of Mammoths lie further up than those of Ceratopsians. In Hilda site you find Ceratopsians but no Mammoths. In parts of Russia you find Mammoths but no Ceratopsians. As far as I know Russia is flatter than the relevant part of Canada, so dinos were if anything further up than Mammoths.

      And, no, as far as wikipedian list of fossil sites is concerned, there are very few places where Mesozoic and Cenozoic are together at all. Yacoraite seems to have similar fauna both Maastrichtian and Danian, only separated by an iridium layer which is supposed to be the Kreide - Terziär boundary (why not C/T and Cretaceous/Tertiary instead of K/T?). But not Ceratopsians under it, nor Mammoths above it.

      Probably Mammoths and Ceratopsians were not best friends either.


  • 2) the relative positions of plants and other non-motile life. (Yun, 1989, describes beautifully preserved algae from Late Precambrian sediments. Why don't any modern-looking plants appear that low in the geological column?)

    • Algae are sea or lake but above sea bottom. Precambrian is just a label on how old that fossil bearing layer is. It does not mean Precambrian algae were any lower than Cretaceous (if any) algae.


  • 3) why some groups of organisms, such as mollusks, are found in many geologic strata.

    • Because the mollusks, being same height more or less during flood, have different labels that only very theoretically "imply" different heights in the geologic column.


  • 4) why organisms (such as brachiopods) which are very similar hydrodynamically (all nearly the same size, shape, and weight) are still perfectly sorted.

    • Sorted into what?

      If you mean different "heights" of geological column, no, I do not think so.

      Except possibly where the brachiopods are the main fauna over several heights categorised as different times. Just as gastropods in Yacoraite are categorised as different times accoridng to the K/T boundary.


  • 5)why extinct animals which lived in the same niches as present animals didn't survive as well. Why did no pterodons make it to high ground?

    • If by High ground you mean "more recent", the reason is probably pterodactyls and pterodons did not get along so well with Smilodons and Cave Bears before the Flood.


  • 6) how coral reefs hundreds of feet thick and miles long were preserved intact with other fossils below them.

    • Probably formed after Flood if so.


  • 7) why small organisms dominate the lower strata, whereas fluid mechanics says they would sink slower and thus end up in upper strata.

    • In precambrian fossil sites you have simply an absence of greater organisms. If there had been greater organisms, geologists and palaeontologists would have labelled the rocks as at a "later time" than Precambrian. Nothing says precambrian sites need have been lower. Or are in fact now.


  • 8) why artifacts such as footprints and burrows are also sorted. [Crimes & Droser, 1992]

    • Not completely, since there are contested footprints and contested placing of artefacts.


  • 9) why no human artifacts are found except in the very uppermost strata. If, at the time of the Flood, the earth was overpopulated by people with technology for shipbuilding, why were none of their tools or buildings mixed with trilobite or dinosaur fossils?

    • The world was not overpopulated.

      They usually kept away from dinos. Wouldn't you?

      Trilobites were usually under water. Men usually do not live above them.


  • 10) why different parts of the same organisms are sorted together. Pollen and spores are found in association with the trunks, leaves, branches, and roots produced by the same plants [Stewart, 1983].

    • Because it is the same layer.

      That does not imply different fossil sites are different layers.

      It does mean the layer was thick and burial rapid, though.


  • 11) why ecological information is consistent within but not between layers. Fossil pollen is one of the more important indicators of different levels of strata. Each plant has different and distinct pollen, and, by telling which plants produced the fossil pollen, it is easy to see what the climate was like in different strata. Was the pollen hydraulically sorted by the flood water so that the climatic evidence is different for each layer?

    • Again there is a confusion between layer and fossil site.

      Plant x is found in Permian biotopes, because Permian beasts liked to stay near plant x. Plant y is found in Triassic biotopes because Triassic beasts liked to be around plant y. And plant z can be found on both biotopes and goes well with both x and y, I suppose.


Anything you would like to reply? Take a good look at my "chronological" sorting of the Fossil sites (which wiki only sorted after continent and alphabetic order of names). Take a good look at my reflections on Cretaceous faunas in general and the Permian and Triassic of Beaufort (which is not Cretaceous) in the appendix to it.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Nanterre, University Library
Sts Severine, Exupery and Felician
19-XI-2013